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HB 2678
Kansas House•In House Committee
Summary
HB 2678, “Enacting the Kansas medical cannabis act to authorize the cultivation, processing, distribution, sale and use of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products”, was introduced in the House on Feb 4, 2026 by Rep. Ford Carr (D) with 27 co-sponsors. It was referred to Interstate Cooperation, and last saw action on Mar 16, 2026: House Withdrawn from Committee on Federal and State Affairs; Referred to Committee on Interstate Cooperation.
Record
Text
HB 2678 has 27 co-sponsors.
hb2678/introduced.txtSession of 2026HOUSE BILL No. 2678By Representatives Carr, Alcala, Amyx, Ballard, Boatman, Brownlee Paige, Carlin,Carmichael, Curtis, Hoye, Martinez, Melton, Meyer, Mosley, Ohaebosim, Oropeza,Osman, Poskin, L. Ruiz, Sawyer, Sawyer Clayton, Schlingensiepen, Simmons,Stogsdill, Vaughn, Wikle, Woodard and Xu2-41 AN ACT concerning health and healthcare; relating to medical cannabis;2 enacting the Kansas medical cannabis act; providing for the licensure3 and regulation of the cultivation, processing, manufacturing,4 distribution, sale and use of medical cannabis and medical cannabis5 products; establishing the medical cannabis registration fund and the6 medical cannabis regulation fund; requiring the expungement of7 cannabis-related charges; assessing an excise tax and requiring amounts8 collected from such tax to be used to fund child care, economic9 development, mental health, low-cost housing and property tax rebates;10 making exceptions to the crimes of unlawful manufacture and11 possession of controlled substances; amending K.S.A. 21-5703, 21-12 5706, 21-5707, 21-5709, 21-5710, 21-6109, 23-3201, 38-2269, 44-13 1009, 44-1015, 79-5201 and 79-5210 and K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 8-1567,14 21-5705, 21-6607, 22-3717, 22-4714, 44-501, 44-706, 65-1120 and 65-15 28b08 and repealing the existing sections.1617 Be it enacted by the Legislature of the State of Kansas:18 New Section 1. (a) Sections 1 through 41, and amendments thereto,19 shall be known as the Kansas medical cannabis act.20 (b) The legislature hereby declares that the Kansas medical cannabis21 act is enacted pursuant to the police power of the state to protect the health22 of its citizens, which power is reserved to the state of Kansas and its23 people under the 10th amendment to the constitution of the United States.24 New Sec. 2. As used in the Kansas medical cannabis act:25 (a) "Advertising" means the act of providing consideration for the26 publication, dissemination, solicitation or circulation of visual, oral or27 written communication to directly or indirectly induce any person to28 patronize a particular licensed medical cannabis facility or purchase a29 particular type of medical cannabis or medical cannabis product.30 "Advertising" includes marketing, but does not include the packaging and31 labeling of any medical cannabis or medical cannabis product.32 (b) "Board of healing arts" means the state board of healing arts.33 (c) "Cannabinoid" means any of the chemical compounds that are34 active principles of cannabis.HB 2678 21 (d) (1) "Cannabis" means all parts of all varieties of the plant2 Cannabis sativa whether growing or not, including, but not limited to, the3 seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of the plant and every4 compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the5 plant, its seeds or resin.6 (2) "Cannabis" does not include:7 (A) The mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil8 or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound,9 manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the mature stalks,10 except the resin extracted therefrom, fiber, oil or cake or the sterilized seed11 of the plant that is incapable of germination;12 (B) any substance listed in schedules II through V of the uniform13 controlled substances act;14 (C) cannabidiol (other trade name: 2-[(3-methyl-6-(1-methylethenyl)-15 2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-pentyl-1,3-benzenediol); or16 (D) industrial hemp, as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments17 thereto, when cultivated, produced, possessed or used for activities18 authorized by the commercial industrial hemp act.19 (e) "Caregiver" means an individual who holds a caregiver20 identification card issued pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto.21 (f) "Cultivate" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 65-4101, and22 amendments thereto.23 (g) "Cultivator" means a person licensed pursuant to section 17, and24 amendments thereto, to cultivate, prepare and package medical cannabis25 and to sell medical cannabis to patients, caregivers, processors and26 medical cannabis pharmacies.27 (h) "Department" means the department of health and environment.28 (i) "Disposal facility" means a premises licensed pursuant to section29 17, and amendments thereto, where medical cannabis waste is disposed of30 by one or more processes that render such waste unusable and31 unrecognizable through destruction or recycling.32 (j) "Director" means the director of the division of alcoholic beverage33 control.34 (k) "Educational research facility" means a premises licensed35 pursuant to section 18, and amendments thereto, where training and36 education involving the cultivation, growing, harvesting, curing,37 preparing, packaging or testing of medical cannabis and the production,38 manufacture, extraction, processing, packaging or creation of medical39 cannabis products is provided to individuals.40 (l) "Laboratory" means a person licensed pursuant to section 17, and41 amendments thereto, to conduct quality control testing on medical42 cannabis and medical cannabis products.43 (m) "Licensee" means any person holding a license issued pursuant toHB 2678 31 section 17, and amendments thereto, to operate as a cultivator, processor,2 laboratory or medical cannabis pharmacy.3 (n) "Licensed premises" means the premises specified in an4 application for a cultivator, processor, laboratory or medical cannabis5 pharmacy license that is owned or leased by the person holding such6 license.7 (o) "Limited medical provider" means a physician or physician's8 assistant who satisfies the qualifications under section 15, and9 amendments thereto, but who has not more than 15 patients who hold a10 valid medical cannabis identification card, or an advance practice11 registered nurse who satisfies the qualifications under section 16, and12 amendments thereto, but who has not more than 15 patients who hold a13 valid medical cannabis identification card.14 (p) (1) "Major life activity" includes, but is not limited to, caring for15 oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping,16 walking, standing, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading,17 concentrating, thinking, communicating and working.18 (2) "Major life activity" also includes the operation of a major bodily19 function, including but not limited to, functions of the immune system,20 normal cell growth, digestive, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain,21 respiratory, circulatory, endocrine and reproductive functions.22 (q) "Manufacture" means the production, propagation, compounding23 or processing of a medical cannabis product, excluding cannabis plants,24 either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural or25 synthetic origin, by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of26 extraction and chemical synthesis.27 (r) "Medical cannabis" means cannabis that is cultivated, processed,28 manufactured, tested, sold, possessed or used for a medical purposes.29 (s) "Medical cannabis concentrate" means a medical cannabis30 concentrate produced by extracting cannabinoids and other plant31 compounds from cannabis through the use of heat, cold or pressure.32 (t) "Medical cannabis pharmacy" means a person licensed pursuant to33 section 17, and amendments thereto, to sell medical cannabis and medical34 cannabis products to patients and caregivers.35 (u) (1) "Medical cannabis product" means a product that contains36 cannabinoids that have been extracted from plant material or the resin of a37 plant and is intended for administration to a patient, including, but is not38 limited to: Suppositories; oils; tinctures; plant material; ingestibles; topical39 forms; gels; creams; vapors; patches; liquids and any form administered by40 an atomizer or nebulizer.41 (2) "Medical cannabis product" does not include any form or method42 of using medical cannabis that is considered attractive to children.43 (v) "Medical cannabis waste" means any of the following:HB 2678 41 (1) Medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical2 cannabis products that are:3 (A) Unused, surplus, returned or expired;4 (B) determined to have failed laboratory testing standards and cannot5 be remediated or decontaminated; or6 (C) part of the inventory of a licensee or educational research facility7 and:8 (i) Such licensee or facility has permanently closed;9 (ii) such inventory was not acquired as authorized by the Kansas10 medical cannabis act; or11 (iii) such inventory cannot be lawfully transferred or sold to another12 licensee or educational research facility; or13 (2) the debris of the plant Cannabis sativa, including any dead plants14 or parts of the plant that are not used by a licensee, except "medical15 cannabis waste" does not include the seeds, roots, stems, stalks or fan16 leaves of such plants.17 (w) "Medical provider" means a qualified medical provider or a18 limited medical provider.19 (x) "Patient" means an individual who has been issued a valid20 identification card pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto.21 (y) "Person" means an individual, partnership, limited partnership,22 limited liability partnership, limited liability company, trust, estate,23 association, corporation, cooperative or any other legal or commercial24 organization.25 (z) "Processor" means a person licensed pursuant to section 17, and26 amendments thereto, to produce, manufacture, package or create medical27 cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis products.28 (aa) "Qualified medical provider" means a physician or physician's29 assistant who is certified pursuant to section 15, and amendments thereto,30 to recommend treatment with medical cannabis or an advance practice31 registered nurse who is certified pursuant to section 16, and amendments32 thereto, to recommend treatment with medical cannabis.33 (bb) "Qualifying medical condition" means a temporary disability or34 illness due to injury or surgery or a permanent disability or illness that35 includes:36 (1) Alzheimer's;37 (2) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis;38 (3) cancer;39 (4) dementia;40 (5) inflammatory bowel conditions and diseases;41 (6) epilepsy or other seizure disorders;42 (7) multiple sclerosis;43 (8) Parkinson's disease;HB 2678 51 (9) post-traumatic stress disorder that:2 (A) Has been diagnosed by a healthcare provider or mental health3 provider employed or contracted by the United States veterans4 administration, evidenced by copies of medical records from the United5 States veterans administration that are included as part of the patient's6 medical record documentation; or7 (B) has been diagnosed or confirmed through face-to-face or8 telehealth evaluation of the patient by a healthcare provider who is a:9 (i) Licensed psychiatrist, masters level psychologist or masters level10 clinical social worker;11 (ii) licensed advanced practice registered nurse who is qualified to12 practice within the psychiatric mental health nursing specialty; or13 (iii) licensed physician assistant who is qualified to specialize in14 mental health care;15 (10) sickle cell anemia;16 (11) HIV or acquired immune deficiency syndrome;17 (12) cachexia;18 (13) Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis;19 (14) autism;20 (15) persistent nausea that is not significantly responsive to21 traditional treatment, except for nausea related to:22 (A) pregnancy;23 (B) cannabis-induced cyclical vomiting syndrome; or24 (C) cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome;25 (16) a terminal illness when the patient's remaining life expectancy is26 less than six months;27 (17) a condition resulting in the individual receiving hospice care;28 (18) a rare condition or disease that:29 (A) Affects less than 200,000 individuals in the United States; and30 (B) is not adequately managed despite treatment attempts using:31 (i) Conventional medications other than opioids or opiates; or32 (ii) physical interventions;33 (19) spinal cord disease or injury;34 (20) severe or intractable pain:35 (A) Lasting longer than two weeks that, in the opinion of the patient's36 physician, is not adequately managed despite treatment attempts using:37 (i) Conventional medications other than opioids or opiates; or38 (ii) physical interventions; or39 (B) that is expected to last for two weeks or longer for an acute40 condition, including a surgical procedure, for which a medical professional41 may generally prescribe opioids for a limited duration; or42 (21) any other disease or condition adopted by the secretary of health43 and environment upon petition recommended for approval by the medicalHB 2678 61 cannabis advisory committee.2 (cc) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department of health and3 environment.4 New Sec. 3. (a) No person shall grow, harvest, process, sell, barter,5 transport, deliver, furnish or otherwise possess any form of cannabis,6 except as specifically provided in the medical cannabis regulation act, the7 Kansas cannabidiol regulation act, section 46 et seq., and amendments8 thereto, or the commercial industrial hemp act, K.S.A. 2-3901 et seq., and9 amendments thereto.10 (b) Nothing in the Kansas medical cannabis act shall be construed to:11 (1) Require a physician to recommend that a patient use medical12 cannabis to treat a qualifying medical condition;13 (2) permit the use, possession or administration of medical cannabis14 other than as authorized by this act;15 (3) permit the use, possession or administration of medical cannabis16 on federal land located in this state;17 (4) permit the use or administration of medical cannabis on any18 property owned, operated or leased by any state agency or political19 subdivision thereof or any city, county or other municipality;20 (5) require any public place to accommodate a patient's use of21 medical cannabis;22 (6) prohibit any public place from accommodating a patient's use of23 medical cannabis; or24 (7) restrict research related to cannabis conducted at a postsecondary25 educational institution, academic medical center or private research and26 development organization as part of a research protocol approved by an27 institutional review board or equivalent entity.28 New Sec. 4. (a) The secretary shall administer the provisions of this29 act and provide for the registration of patients and caregivers, including30 the issuance of identification cards to such patients and caregivers in31 accordance with the provisions of this act.32 (b) The board of healing arts shall administer the provisions of this33 act regarding the certification of physicians and physician assistants34 authorizing such physicians and physician assistants to recommend35 medical cannabis as a treatment for patients.36 (c) The board of nursing shall administer the provisions of this act37 regarding the certification of advance practice registered nurses38 authorizing such advance practice registered nurses to recommend medical39 cannabis as a treatment for patients.40 (d) The director shall administer the provisions of this act and provide41 for the licensure of cultivators, laboratories, processors, medical cannabis42 pharmacies, disposal facilities and educational research facilities.43 New Sec. 5. (a) Except as permitted under subsection (c), theHB 2678 71 following individuals shall not solicit or accept, directly or indirectly, any2 gift, gratuity, emolument or employment from any person who is an3 applicant for any license or is a licensee under the provisions of this act or4 any officer, agent or employee thereof, or solicit requests from or5 recommend, directly or indirectly, to any such person, the appointment of6 any individual to any place or position:7 (1) The secretary or any officer, employee or agent of the department8 of health and environment;9 (2) the secretary of revenue, the director or any officer, employee or10 agent of the division of alcoholic beverage control;11 (3) any member of the state board of healing arts; or12 (4) any member of the board of nursing.13 (b) Except as permitted under subsection (c), an applicant for a14 license or a licensee under the provisions of this act shall not offer any gift,15 gratuity, emolument or employment to any of the following:16 (1) The secretary or any officer, employee or agent of the department;17 (2) the secretary of revenue, the director or any officer, employee or18 agent of the division of alcoholic beverage control;19 (3) any member of the state board of healing arts; or20 (4) any member of the board of nursing.21 (c) The secretary, the secretary of revenue, the state board of healing22 arts and the board of nursing may adopt rules and regulations for their23 respective agencies allowing the acceptance of official hospitality by the24 respective secretary, members of the state board of healing arts, the board25 of nursing and employees of each such respective agency, subject to any26 limits as prescribed by such rules and regulations.27 (d) If the secretary, the secretary of revenue, any member of the state28 board of healing arts, the board of nursing or any employee of each such29 respective agency violates any provision of this section, such person shall30 be removed from such person's office or employment.31 (e) Violation of any provision of this section is a severity level 7,32 nonperson felony.33 (f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the34 prosecution and punishment of any person for any other crime in the35 Kansas criminal code.36 New Sec. 6. All actions taken by the secretary, the director, the state37 board of healing arts or the board of nursing under the Kansas medical38 cannabis act shall be in accordance with the Kansas administrative39 procedure act and reviewable in accordance with the Kansas judicial40 review act.41 New Sec. 7. (a) There is hereby established within the department the42 Kansas medical cannabis advisory board. The Kansas medical cannabis43 advisory board shall consist of 11 members appointed by the secretary.HB 2678 81 The composition of the board shall accurately reflect the state's population2 with respect to ethnicity, gender, age, race and economic status.3 (b) Members of the Kansas medical cannabis advisory board shall4 serve for a term of two years. Any vacancy in a position on the board shall5 be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.6 (c) On or before September 1, 2026, and each year thereafter, the7 board shall meet to elect a chairperson and vice chairperson from the8 members appointed pursuant to subsection (a)(9).9 (d) The Kansas medical cannabis advisory board shall advise the10 secretary, the board of healing arts and the board of nursing on the11 adoption of rules and regulations pertaining to the following:12 (1) Registration of patients and caregivers;13 (2) issuance and renewal of identification cards and the fees therefor;14 (3) certification of physicians, physician assistants and advance15 practice registered nurses, including any continuing education16 requirements;17 (4) purchasing and transportation of medical cannabis by patients and18 caregivers, including, but not limited to, any limits on the form or amount19 of medical cannabis or medical cannabis products that can be purchased or20 possessed; and21 (5) education, research and treatment with medical cannabis.22 (e) The Kansas medical cannabis advisory board shall advise the23 secretary of revenue and the director on the adoption of rules and24 regulations pertaining to the following:25 (1) Applications for licensure;26 (2) issuance and renewal of licenses, including the fees therefor;27 (3) security of licensed premises;28 (4) testing of medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and29 medical cannabis products;30 (5) transportation of medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate31 and medical cannabis products;32 (6) education, research and advertising of medical cannabis;33 (7) electronic monitoring of medical cannabis from seed source to34 retail sale to a patient or caregiver as required under section 31, and35 amendments thereto;36 (8) policies and procedures related to the receipt, storage, packaging,37 labeling, handling, manufacturing, tracking and retail sale of medical38 cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products;39 (9) a request for proposal process to identify a laboratory that has40 operated within the legal cannabis sector for at least two years for assisting41 in duties including, but not limited to, validation of test results and42 calibration of equipment pursuant to section 27, and amendments thereto;43 (10) purchasing and financial transactions pertaining to orderingHB 2678 91 medical cannabis through the internet and delivery protocols; and2 (11) medical cannabis waste management.3 (f) (1) (A) Any person may submit a petition to the medical cannabis4 advisory board requesting that a disease or condition:5 (i) Be added as a qualifying medical condition for the purposes of this6 act; or7 (ii) that was previously recommended for approval by the board and8 included as a qualifying medical condition by the secretary of health and9 environment through the adoption of rules and regulations, be removed as10 a qualifying medical condition for purposes of this act.11 (B) The petition shall be submitted in such form and manner as12 prescribed by the secretary of health and environment. A petition shall not13 seek to add or remove a broad category of diseases or conditions but shall14 be limited to one disease or condition and include a description of such15 disease or condition.16 (2) Upon receipt of a petition, the board shall review such petition to17 determine whether to recommend the approval or denial of the disease or18 condition described in the petition as an addition to or removal from the19 list of qualifying medical conditions. The board may consolidate the20 review of petitions for the same or similar diseases or conditions. In21 making its determination, the board shall:22 (A) Consult with one or more experts who specialize in the study of23 the disease or condition;24 (B) review any relevant medical or scientific evidence pertaining to25 the disease or condition;26 (C) consider whether conventional medical therapies are insufficient27 to treat or alleviate the disease or condition;28 (D) review evidence supporting the use of medical cannabis to treat29 or alleviate the disease or condition; and30 (E) review any letters of support provided by physicians with31 knowledge of the disease or condition, including any letter provided by a32 physician treating the petitioner.33 (3) Upon completion of its review, the board shall make a34 recommendation to the secretary of health and environment whether to35 approve or deny the addition or removal of the disease or condition to the36 list of qualifying medical conditions. The secretary shall adopt rules and37 regulations in accordance with the recommendation of the board.38 (4) Prior to July 1, 2027, and every three years thereafter, the board39 shall review all diseases or conditions that have been recommended for40 approval by the board and adopted by the secretary of health and41 environment through rules and regulations to determine if the inclusion of42 any such diseases or conditions are no longer supported by scientific43 evidence. The inclusion of any such disease or condition that the boardHB 2678 101 determines is no longer supported by scientific evidence shall be2 recommended by the board to the secretary of health and environment for3 removal from the list of qualifying medical conditions.4 (g) On or before January 15, 2027, and each January 15 thereafter, the5 Kansas medical cannabis advisory board shall prepare and submit a report6 to the legislature on the implementation of the Kansas medical cannabis7 act during the previous calendar year and recommendations for statutory8 changes to such act.9 New Sec. 8. (a) The secretary shall begin accepting applications for10 identification cards on or before January 1, 2027.11 (b) The secretary shall develop and publish a website to provide12 information about the Kansas medical cannabis act. A link to the website13 shall be located in a prominent location on the primary website for the14 Kansas medical cannabis advisory board. The department website may15 include, but shall not be limited to, the following:16 (1) The ability to search for any of the following:17 (A) Certified medical providers;18 (B) licensed cultivators and processors or manufacturers; and19 (C) licensed medical cannabis pharmacies;20 (2) contact information for applying for an identification card,21 including the phone number and email;22 (3) information regarding the process for appealing a decision of the23 secretary;24 (4) application forms for identification cards; and25 (5) crop damage report forms, including a portal to upload documents26 and pictures.27 New Sec. 9. (a) A patient seeking to use medical cannabis or a28 caregiver seeking to assist a patient in the use or administration of medical29 cannabis shall apply to the secretary for an identification card authorizing30 the possession and use of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products31 as authorized by this act. The application for an identification card shall be32 submitted in such form and manner as prescribed by the secretary and33 include the required fee and the written recommendation from the patient's34 medical provider to treat such patient with medical cannabis because such35 patient has a qualifying medical condition.36 (b) (1) The fee for a patient identification card or the renewal thereof37 shall be established by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary,38 except that such fee shall be waived for any applicant that submits proof39 that the applicant:40 (A) Qualifies for services under the Kansas medical assistance41 program; or42 (B) is certified by the Kansas department for aging and disability43 services or by the Kansas department for children and families as having aHB 2678 111 physical or mental impairment that constitutes a substantial barrier to2 employment.3 (2) The fee for a caregiver identification card or the renewal thereof4 shall be established by rules and regulations adopted by secretary.5 (c) The secretary shall not issue an identification card to an applicant6 who is under 18 years of age unless the applicant submits written7 recommendations from two medical providers that such applicant has a8 qualifying medical condition, and such applicant's custodial parent or legal9 guardian with responsibility for healthcare decisions for such applicant10 obtains a caregiver identification card and is designated as such applicant's11 caregiver.12 (d) (1) A patient may designate any individual who is 18 years of age13 or older as such patient's caregiver, including the owner, operator or any14 trained staff of a licensed clinic, healthcare facility, hospice or home health15 agency, group home or halfway house, and any individual who has been16 designated as a caregiver by another patient.17 (2) A caregiver may be less than 18 years of age if:18 (A) The caregiver is the parent of the patient, and the patient is under19 18 years of age;20 (B) the caregiver is otherwise authorized by law to make healthcare21 decisions for the patient; or22 (C) it is demonstrated to the satisfaction of the director that the23 patient needs a caregiver and there is no individual 18 years of age or older24 who can adequately perform the duties of a caregiver for such patient.25 (e) A patient or caregiver identification card shall be valid for the26 period of time stated on such card and may be renewed by submitting a27 renewal application in such form and manner as prescribed by the28 secretary and paying the required fee.29 (f) (1) Any information collected by the director pursuant to this30 section is confidential and not a public record. The secretary may share31 information identifying a specific patient or caregiver with a licensed32 medical cannabis pharmacy for the purpose of confirming that such patient33 or caregiver has a valid identification card. The provisions of this34 subsection shall expire on July 1, 2031, unless the legislature reviews and35 reenacts such provisions in accordance with K.S.A. 45-229, and36 amendments thereto, prior to July 1, 2031.37 (2) It shall be a class B nonperson misdemeanor for any person to38 release any confidential information collected by the secretary except as39 authorized under this act.40 New Sec. 10. (a) A written recommendation from a medical provider41 shall include a statement that such medical provider has taken42 responsibility for an aspect of the medical care, treatment, diagnosis,43 counseling or referral of a patient, has conducted a medical examination ofHB 2678 121 such patient and has determined such patient suffers from a qualifying2 medical condition.3 (b) In the case of a patient who is under 18 years of age, the medical4 provider may recommend treatment with medical cannabis only after5 obtaining the consent of the patient's parent or legal guardian responsible6 for making healthcare decisions for the patient.7 (c) A medical provider shall be immune from civil liability, shall not8 be subject to professional disciplinary action by the state board of healing9 arts or the board of nursing and is immune from criminal prosecution for10 any of the following actions:11 (1) Advising a patient, patient representative or caregiver about the12 benefits and risks of medical cannabis to treat a qualifying medical13 condition;14 (2) recommending that a patient use medical cannabis to treat or15 alleviate a qualifying medical condition; and16 (3) monitoring a patient's treatment with medical cannabis.17 New Sec. 11. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis18 registration fund in the state treasury. The secretary shall administer the19 medical cannabis registration fund and shall remit all moneys collected20 from the payment of all fees and fines imposed by the secretary pursuant21 to the Kansas medical cannabis act and any other moneys received by or22 on behalf of the secretary pursuant to such act to the state treasurer in23 accordance with the provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments24 thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance, the state treasurer shall25 deposit the entire amount in the state treasury to the credit of the medical26 cannabis registration fund. Moneys credited to the medical cannabis27 registration fund shall only be expended or transferred as provided in this28 section. Expenditures from such fund shall be made in accordance with29 appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of accounts and reports30 issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the secretary or the secretary's31 designee.32 (b) Moneys in the medical cannabis registration fund shall be used for33 the payment or reimbursement of costs related to the regulation and34 enforcement of the possession and use of medical cannabis by the35 secretary.36 New Sec. 12. (a) In addition to or in lieu of any other civil or criminal37 penalty as provided by law, the secretary may impose a civil penalty or38 suspend or revoke a patient or caregiver identification card upon a finding39 that the patient or caregiver committed a violation as provided in this40 section.41 (b) Nothing in this act shall be construed to require the secretary to42 enforce minor violations if the secretary determines that the public interest43 is adequately served by a notice or warning to the alleged offender.HB 2678 131 (c) Upon a finding that a patient or caregiver has submitted fraudulent2 information or otherwise falsified or misrepresented information required3 to be submitted by such patient or caregiver, the secretary may impose a4 civil fine in an amount not to exceed $500 for a first offense and may5 suspend or revoke the individual's identification card for a second or6 subsequent offense.7 (d) If the secretary suspends, revokes or refuses to renew any8 identification card issued pursuant to this act and determines that there is9 clear and convincing evidence of a danger of immediate and serious harm10 to any person, the secretary may place under seal all medical cannabis11 owned by or in the possession, custody or control of the affected patient or12 caregiver. Except as provided in this section, the secretary shall not13 dispose of the sealed medical cannabis until a final order is issued14 authorizing such disposition. During the pendency of an appeal from any15 order issued by the secretary, a court may order the secretary to sell16 medical cannabis that is perishable, and the proceeds of any such sale shall17 be deposited with the court.18 New Sec. 13. A medical cannabis identification card, or its19 equivalent, that is issued under the laws of another state, district, territory,20 commonwealth or insular possession of the United States that is verifiable21 by the jurisdiction of issuance and allows a nonresident patient to possess22 medical cannabis for medical purposes shall have the same force and23 effect as an identification card issued by the director pursuant to section 9,24 and amendments thereto.25 New Sec. 14. On or before January 1, 2027, and after consultation26 with the Kansas medical cannabis advisory board, the secretary shall adopt27 rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this act, including, but28 not limited to:29 (a) Applications for a patient or caregiver identification card;30 (b) issuance and renewal of such identification cards and the fees31 therefor;32 (c) the period of time for which such cards are valid;33 (d) purchasing and transportation of medical cannabis by patients and34 caregivers, including, but not limited to, any limits on the form or amount35 of medical cannabis or medical cannabis products that can be purchased or36 possessed; and37 (e) education, research and treatment with medical cannabis.38 New Sec. 15. (a) Except as provided in subsections (c) and (d), a39 physician or physician assistant who is seeking to recommend treatment40 with medical cannabis shall apply to the board of healing arts for a41 certificate authorizing such physician or physician assistant to recommend42 treatment with medical cannabis. The application shall be submitted in43 such form and manner as prescribed by the board and by paying theHB 2678 141 required fee. The board of healing arts shall grant a certificate to2 recommend treatment with medical cannabis if the following conditions3 are satisfied:4 (1) The application is complete and meets the requirements5 established in rules and regulations adopted by the board; and6 (2) the applicant demonstrates that the applicant does not have an7 ownership or investment interest in or compensation arrangement with an8 entity licensed under section 17, and amendments thereto, or an applicant9 for such licensure.10 (b) A certificate to recommend treatment with medical cannabis may11 be renewed by submitting a renewal application in such form and manner12 as prescribed by the state board and paying the required fee.13 (c) This section shall not apply to a limited medical provider. A14 limited medical provider may only recommend treatment with medical15 cannabis if:16 (1) Such treatment is recommended after:17 (A) A face-to-face visit for an initial recommendation or the renewal18 of a recommendation for a patient for whom the limited medical provider19 did not make the patient's original recommendation; or20 (B) a visit using telehealth services for a renewal of a21 recommendation for a patient for whom the limited medical provider made22 the patient's original recommendation; and23 (2) the recommendation would not cause the total number of such24 limited medical provider's total number of patients who have a valid25 medical cannabis identification card to exceed 15.26 (d) This section shall not apply to a physician who recommends27 treatment with cannabis or a cannabis-derived drug under any of the28 following that is approved by an institutional review board or equivalent29 entity, the United States food and drug administration or the national30 institutes of health or one of its cooperative groups or centers under the31 United States department of health and human services:32 (1) A research protocol;33 (2) a clinical trial;34 (3) an investigational new drug application; or35 (4) an expanded access submission.36 (e) On or before January 1, 2027, and after consultation with the37 Kansas medical cannabis advisory board, the board of healing arts shall38 adopt rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this section,39 including, but not limited to:40 (1) Applications for a certificate to treat with medical cannabis;41 (2) issuance and renewal of certificates including the fees therefor;42 (3) the period of time for which such certificates are valid; and43 (4) suspension or revocation of a certificate for violations of this act.HB 2678 151 New Sec. 16. (a) Except as provided in subsection (c), an advance2 practice registered nurse who is seeking to recommend treatment with3 medical cannabis shall apply to the board of nursing for a certificate4 authorizing such advance practice registered nurse to recommend5 treatment with medical cannabis. The application shall be submitted in6 such form and manner as prescribed by the board and by paying the7 required fee. The board shall grant a certificate to recommend treatment8 with medical cannabis if the following conditions are satisfied:9 (1) The application is complete and meets the requirements10 established in rules and regulations adopted by the board; and11 (2) the applicant demonstrates that the applicant does not have an12 ownership or investment interest in or compensation arrangement with an13 entity licensed under section 17, and amendments thereto, or an applicant14 for such licensure.15 (b) A certificate to recommend treatment with medical cannabis may16 be renewed by submitting a renewal application in such form and manner17 as prescribed by the board and paying the required fee.18 (c) This section shall not apply to a limited medical provider. A19 limited medical provider may only recommend treatment with medical20 cannabis if:21 (1) Such treatment is recommended after:22 (A) A face-to-face visit for an initial recommendation or the renewal23 of a recommendation for a patient for whom the limited medical provider24 did not make the patient's original recommendation; or25 (B) a visit using telehealth services for a renewal of a26 recommendation for a patient for whom the limited medical provider made27 the patient's original recommendation; and28 (2) the recommendation would not cause the total number of such29 limited medical provider's total number of patients who have a valid30 medical cannabis identification card to exceed 15.31 (d) On or before January 1, 2027, and after consultation with the32 Kansas medical cannabis advisory board, the board of nursing shall adopt33 rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this section,34 including, but not limited to:35 (1) Applications for a certificate to treat with medical cannabis;36 (2) issuance and renewal of certificates including the fees therefor;37 (3) the period of time for which such certificates are valid; and38 (4) suspension or revocation of a certificate for violations of this act.39 New Sec. 17. (a) A person seeking to operate as a cultivator,40 processor, laboratory or medical cannabis pharmacy or to operate a41 disposal facility shall apply to the director for a license by submitting an42 application for such license in such form and manner as prescribed by the43 director and paying the required fee.HB 2678 161(b) Except as otherwise provided, the director shall issue such license2 if:3 (1) The application is complete and meets the requirements4 established in rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue;5 and6 (2) the applicant is an individual and:7 (A) Is not less than 21 years of age;8 (B) (i) is a resident of this state; or9 (ii) has been a resident of this state for two consecutive years prior to10 the date the application is submitted and has not fewer than two years of11 experience in the cannabis industry, including the industrial hemp and12 cannabidiol industries;13 (C) has not previously held a license issued pursuant to this section14 that has been revoked;15 (D) is in good standing with any other licensing or regulatory body of16 this state that has issued a license to such applicant; and17 (E) has submitted a tax clearance certificate issued by the department18 of revenue; or19 (3) the applicant is a business entity and:20 (A) The individual submitting the application on behalf of such21 business entity would be qualified to hold a license as an individual;22 (B) such individual is legally authorized to submit the application on23 behalf of such business entity; and24 (C) at least 2/3 of the individuals who have an ownership interest in25 such business entity are residents of this state.26 (c) No cultivator license shall be issued to an applicant that:27 (1) Has an ownership interest in another licensed cultivator; or28 (2) has fewer than two years of experience in the cannabis industry.29 (d) No laboratory license shall be issued to an applicant that has an30 ownership interest in a licensed cultivator, processor, medical cannabis31 pharmacy or disposal facility.32 (e) (1) No license shall be issued pursuant to subsection (b) to an33 applicant if any individual with an ownership interest in such applicant or34 any officer, director, manager or employee of such applicant has been35 convicted of a disqualifying felony offense.36 (2) For purposes of this subsection, "disqualifying felony offense"37 means any felony offense under the laws of this state, any other state or the38 United States, except:39 (A) Any offense where the unlawful conduct was the medical use of40 cannabis or assisting in the medical use of cannabis by another;41 (B) any offense that is not a person felony, for which the defendant42 was not incarcerated and for which the conviction occurred at least five43 years prior to the date the application for a license is submitted; orHB 2678 171 (C) any offense for which the defendant was released from parole,2 postrelease supervision or probation at least five years prior to the date the3 application for a license is submitted and such defendant has not been4 convicted of any offense since such release.5 (3) The director may consult with the attorney general, the secretary6 of the department of corrections or any district or county attorney as7 necessary to determine the application of this subsection.8 (f) A license issued pursuant to this section shall be valid for two9 years from the date specified on such license. Such license may be10 renewed by submitting a renewal application in such form and manner as11 prescribed by the director and paying the required fee.12 New Sec. 18. (a) A person seeking to operate an educational research13 facility shall apply to the director for a license for such facility by14 submitting an application for such license in such form and manner as15 prescribed by the director and paying the required fee.16 (b) The director shall issue a license for such facility if:17 (1) The application is complete and meets the requirements18 established in rules and regulations adopted by the secretary; and19 (2) the applicant submits proof that such applicant has or will have an20 employment policy that will not prohibit the employment of individuals21 who have been convicted or pleaded guilty to any offense under article 36a22 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, prior to its transfer, article23 57 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments24 thereto, or K.S.A. 65-4160 or 65-4162, prior to their repeal, but whose25 conduct that resulted in such offense would have been lawful if such26 individual had possessed a valid patient or caregiver identification card at27 the time of such offense.28 (c) A license issued pursuant to this section shall be valid for two29 years from the date specified on such license. Such license may be30 renewed by submitting a renewal application in such form and manner as31 prescribed by the director and paying the required fee.32 New Sec. 19. For all applicants for a license to be issued pursuant to33 section 17, and amendments thereto, the director shall require any owner,34 director, officer or agent of such applicant to be fingerprinted and to35 submit to a state and national criminal history record check in accordance36 with K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 22-4714, and amendments thereto.37 New Sec. 20. (a) The director may refuse to issue or renew a license38 pursuant to section 17, and amendments thereto, or may revoke or suspend39 such license for any of the following reasons:40 (1) The licensee has failed to comply with any provision of the41 Kansas medical cannabis act or any rules and regulations adopted by the42 secretary;43 (2) the applicant or licensee has falsified or misrepresented anyHB 2678 181 information submitted to the director in order to obtain a license;2 (3) the applicant or licensee has failed to adhere to any3 acknowledgment, verification or other representation made to the director4 when applying for a license; or5 (4) the applicant or licensee has failed to submit or disclose6 information requested by the director.7 (b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the director shall inspect8 the licensed premises of a licensee not more than twice each calendar year9 and provide notice of such inspection to the licensee at least 24 hours prior10 to the inspection.11 (2) The director may conduct additional inspections of a licensed12 premises when necessary due to a prior violation of this act. Such13 inspection may be conducted without prior notice to the licensee if the14 director reasonably believes that such notice will result in the destruction15 of evidence in further violation of this act.16 (c) During any investigation by the director, the director may require17 and conduct interviews with the licensee under investigation and any18 owners, officers, employees and agents thereof. Prior to conducting any19 such interviews upon the request of the licensee, the director shall provide20 the licensee and any other individuals being interviewed sufficient time to21 secure legal representation during such interviews.22 New Sec. 21. (a) The director shall issue licenses under this act in a23 manner that does not discriminate against any applicant on the basis of the24 applicant's ethnicity, gender, age, race or economic status.25 (b) Nothing in this section limits the director's authority to apply26 neutral, objective and uniformly administered eligibility criteria27 established under this act.28 New Sec. 22. (a) A person arrested for, charged with or convicted of a29 criminal offense pursuant to Kansas statute or district or municipal code30 that was decriminalized or legalized after the date of the arrest, charge or31 conviction may file a motion of expungement to seal the record of the32 arrest, charge, conviction, supervision and related proceedings at any time33 with no fee.34 (b) The convicting court shall grant a motion of expungement and35 seal the cannabis-related charge and not any other non-cannabis or non-36 cannabis use related state, municipal or federal charges or convictions37 against the person.38 (c) In a motion filed under subparagraph (a), the burden shall be on39 the prosecutor to establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the40 record is not eligible for sealing pursuant to this section because the41 conduct was not decriminalized or legalized.42 (d) In cases that do not meet the requirements of this section, the43 court of charge may grant a motion to seal if it is in the interest of justiceHB 2678 191 to do so. In making this determination, the court shall weigh:2 (1) The interests of the petitioner in sealing the publicly available3 records of such petitioner's arrest, charge, conviction, supervision and4 related proceedings;5 (2) the community's interest in retaining access to those records;6 (3) the community's interest in furthering the petitioner's7 rehabilitation and enhancing the petitioner's employability; and8 (4) any other information such court considers relevant.9 (e) If the court grants a motion to seal under this section:10 (1) The court shall order the prosecutor, any law enforcement agency11 and any pretrial, corrections or community supervision agency to remove12 from publicly available records all references that identify the petitioner as13 having been arrested, prosecuted or convicted.14 (2) The prosecutor's office, any law enforcement agency and any15 pretrial, corrections or community supervision agency shall be entitled to16 retain records related to the petitioner's arrest, prosecution, conviction or17 related court proceedings in a nonpublic file.18 (3) The prosecutor, any law enforcement agency and any pretrial,19 corrections or community supervision agency shall file a certification with20 the court within 90 days after the court issues an order under this section21 that, to the best of such court's knowledge and belief, all references that22 identify the petitioner as having been arrested, prosecuted or convicted23 have been removed from such court's publicly available records.24 (4) The court shall order the clerk to remove or eliminate all publicly25 available court records that identify the petitioner as having been arrested,26 prosecuted or convicted.27 (5) The clerk shall be entitled to retain any records related to the28 petitioner's arrest, prosecution, conviction or related court proceedings in a29 nonpublic file.30 (f) In a case involving codefendants in which the court orders the31 petitioner's records sealed, the court may order that only those records or32 portions thereof related solely to the petitioner be redacted.33 (g) The court need not order the redaction of references to the34 petitioner that appear in a transcript of court proceedings involving35 codefendants.36 (h) The court shall not order the redaction of the petitioner's name37 from any published opinion of the trial or appellate courts that refer to the38 petitioner.39 (i) Unless otherwise ordered by the court, the clerk and any other40 agency shall reply in response to inquiries from the public concerning the41 existence of records that have been sealed pursuant to this section that no42 records are available.43 (j) No person as to whom relief pursuant to this section has beenHB 2678 201 granted shall be held thereafter under any provision of law to be guilty of2 perjury or otherwise giving a false statement by reason of failure to recite3 or acknowledge such person's own arrest, charge, trial or conviction in4 response to any inquiry made of such person for any purpose.5 (k) A person imprisoned solely as a result of one or more convictions6 for offenses that are expunged under this act shall be released from7 incarceration upon the issuance of an order under this subsection.8 (1) The department of corrections shall allow a person to use the9 established access and review process for verifying such person's own10 records related to eligibility.11 (2) No conviction vacated pursuant to this section shall serve as the12 basis for damages for time unjustly served.13 (l) A person's right to expunge an expungeable offense shall not be14 limited under this section. The effect of an order of expungement shall be15 to restore the person to the status such person occupied before the arrest,16 charge or conviction.17 (m) The department of corrections shall post general information on18 its website about the expungement process described in this section.19 (n) If a person is arrested and the person's case is still pending but a20 sentence has not been imposed, the person may petition the court in which21 the charges are pending for an order to summarily dismiss those charges22 against him or her and expunge all official records of his or her arrest,23 plea, trial, conviction, incarceration, supervision or expungement.24 (o) In the public interest, the state's attorney of a county has standing25 to file motions to vacate and expunge cannabis-related charges in the court26 with jurisdiction over the underlying conviction pursuant to this section.27 (p) Any individual may file a motion to vacate and expunge a28 conviction.29 (q) (1) Upon the effective date of this act, the department of30 corrections shall review all criminal history record information and31 identify all records showing persons with one or more convictions for32 offenses covered under this act and not associated with a conviction for33 any crime prohibited for expungement under K.S.A. 21-6614(e) and (f),34 and amendments thereto.35 (2) Within 180 days after the effective date of this act, the department36 of corrections shall notify the prisoner review board of all such records37 that meet the criteria established in this subsection.38 (3) The prisoner review board shall notify the convicting court of39 each record identified by the department of corrections. The convicting40 court may provide a written objection to the prisoner review board on the41 sole basis that the record identified does not meet the criteria in this42 section. Such an objection must be filed within 60 days or by a later date43 set by the prisoner review board after the convicting court received noticeHB 2678 211 from the prisoner review board.2 (A) In response to a written objection from a convicting court, the3 prisoner review board is authorized to conduct a hearing to evaluate the4 information provided in the objection.5 (B) The prisoner review board shall make a confidential and6 privileged recommendation to the governor as to whether to grant a pardon7 authorizing expungement for each of the records identified by the8 department of corrections.9 (r) The following records may be sealed:10 (1) All arrests resulting in a release and without a charge;11 (2) arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal,12 dismissal or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated;13 (3) arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of14 supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance15 violations, successfully completed by the petitioner;16 (4) arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions,17 including convictions on municipal ordinance violations;18 (5) arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first19 offender probation; and20 (6) arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony21 convictions, unless otherwise excluded by this section.22 (s) Records identified as eligible under this section may be sealed at23 any time.24 (t) Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing25 of records under this section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting26 the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the27 arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or28 charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in29 each such jurisdiction.30 (u) The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's31 name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not32 initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the33 date of arrest, if any, the identity of the arresting authority and such other34 information as the court may require. During the pendency of the35 proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the convicting court of any36 change of such petitioner's address. If the petitioner has received a37 certificate of eligibility for sealing from the prisoner review board, the38 certificate shall be attached to the petition.39 (v) The convicting court shall promptly serve a copy of the petition40 and documentation to support the petition on the state's attorney or41 prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense.42 (w) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection43 to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, filed with the convictingHB 2678 221 court and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a2 person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the3 governor that specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the4 petition may not be filed.5 (1) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 606 days of the date of service of the petition.7 (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not8 deny a petition for sealing under this section because the petitioner has not9 satisfied an outstanding legal financial obligation established, imposed or10 originated by a court, law enforcement agency or a municipal, state,11 county or other unit of local government, including, but not limited to, any12 cost, assessment, fine or fee. An outstanding legal financial obligation does13 not include any court ordered restitution to a victim unless the restitution14 has been converted to a civil judgment. Nothing in this section waives,15 rescinds or abrogates a legal financial obligation or otherwise eliminates or16 affects the right of the holder of any financial obligation to pursue17 collection under applicable federal, state or local law.18 (x) If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and19 notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the20 hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. At the hearing, the court21 shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted22 and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on23 the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the24 following:25 (1) The strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's26 conviction;27 (2) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the state;28 (3) the petitioner's age, criminal record history and employment29 history;30 (4) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge31 resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this section;32 and33 (5) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to34 if the petition is denied.35 (y) After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court shall36 provide copies of the order to the petitioner, the state's attorney or37 prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the arresting38 agency, the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the39 arrest and such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the40 court.41 (1) No court order issued under the expungement or sealing42 provisions of this section shall become final for purposes of appeal until43 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitledHB 2678 231 to notice of the petition.2 (2) Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to3 seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the4 terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order, even if a party is5 seeking relief from the order through a motion filed or is appealing the6 order.7 (3) While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition8 to expunge through a motion filed under this section or is appealing the9 order, unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to10 notice of the petition must seal but need not expunge the records until11 there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal,12 the issuance of that court's mandate.13 (z) If a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a14 pardon by the governor that specifically authorizes expungement, such15 person may, upon verified petition to the court where the person was16 convicted, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from17 the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of18 the court clerk be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause19 shown or as otherwise provided in subsection (y) and that the name of the20 defendant be removed from the official index.21 New Sec. 23. (a) A cultivator may:22 (1) Cultivate medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions of23 this act;24 (2) transport, deliver and sell medical cannabis to one or more25 licensed cultivators, processors or medical cannabis pharmacies;26 (3) purchase and receive medical cannabis from one or more licensed27 cultivators; and28 (4) transport and deliver medical cannabis waste to one or more29 disposal facilities.30 (b) (1) Unless authorized by this act, a cultivator shall not transfer or31 sell medical cannabis unless samples from each harvest batch or32 production batch from which such medical cannabis was derived has been33 tested by a licensed laboratory for contaminants and has passed all34 contaminant tests required by this act.35 (2) A cultivator may transfer medical cannabis that has failed36 laboratory testing to a licensed processor only for the purposes of37 decontamination or remediation and only in accordance with the38 provisions of this act.39 (c) A cultivator facility shall not cultivate medical cannabis for40 personal, family or household use or on any public land.41 (d) The licensed premises of a cultivator shall only be located on land42 that has been zoned for commercial or industrial use.43 New Sec. 24. (a) A processor may:HB 2678 241 (1) Purchase and receive medical cannabis from one or more licensed2 cultivators or processors;3 (2) subject to subsection (b), process medical cannabis obtained from4 a licensed cultivator into medical cannabis concentrate or medical5 cannabis products;6 (3) transport, deliver and sell processed medical cannabis, medical7 cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis products to one or more8 licensed processors or medical cannabis pharmacy; and9 (4) transport and deliver medical cannabis waste to one or more10 disposal facilities.11 (b) A processor shall not transfer, sell or process into a concentrate or12 medical cannabis product any medical cannabis, medical cannabis13 concentrate or medical cannabis product unless samples from each harvest14 batch or production batch from which such medical cannabis, medical15 cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product was derived has been16 tested by a licensed laboratory for contaminants and has passed all17 contaminant tests required by this act.18 (c) When packaging medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate19 and medical cannabis products, a processor shall comply with any20 packaging and labeling requirements established by rules and regulations21 adopted by the secretary of revenue.22 (d) The licensed premises of a processor shall only be located on land23 that has been zoned for commercial or industrial use.24 New Sec. 25. (a) A medical cannabis pharmacy may:25 (1) Purchase and receive medical cannabis and medical cannabis26 products from one or more licensed cultivators or processors;27 (2) sell medical cannabis and medical cannabis products to patients28 and caregivers in accordance with subsection (b); and29 (3) transport and deliver medical cannabis waste to one or more30 disposal facilities.31 (b) When selling medical cannabis and medical cannabis products, a32 medical cannabis pharmacy shall:33 (1) Sell medical cannabis and medical cannabis products only to a34 person who provides a current, valid patient or caregiver identification35 card and only in accordance with a written recommendation issued by a36 medical provider; and37 (2) comply with any packaging and labeling requirements established38 by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.39 (c) A medical cannabis pharmacy shall not make public any40 information received or collected by such licensee that identifies or would41 tend to identify any specific patient.42 (d) A medical cannabis pharmacy shall employ at least one licensed43 pharmacist. Such pharmacist shall develop and provide training to otherHB 2678 251 medical cannabis pharmacy employees at least once every 12 months that2 establishes guidelines for:3 (1) Providing information to patients related to risks, benefits and4 side effects associated with medical cannabis; and5 (2) notifying the physician who provided the written certification for6 medical cannabis if side effects or contraindications occur.7 New Sec. 26. (a) A disposal facility may:8 (1) Transport and receive medical cannabis waste to or from a9 cultivator, processor, medical cannabis pharmacy, laboratory or another10 disposal facility; and11 (2) dispose of medical cannabis waste received from a cultivator,12 processor, medical cannabis pharmacy, laboratory or another disposal13 facility and medical cannabis waste produced by the licensee if the14 licensee also holds a cultivator, processor, medical cannabis pharmacy or15 laboratory license.16 (b) All medical cannabis waste disposed of pursuant to this act shall17 be subject to any rules and regulations adopted by the secretary relating to18 the proper disposal of such materials in order to preserve the health and19 safety of the public.20 (c) All medical cannabis waste shall be documented and tracked21 through the electronic inventory tracking system established under section22 31, and amendments thereto. Such documentation shall include:23 (1) Unique identification numbers for inventory lots;24 (2) the total weight of the medical cannabis waste disposed of;25 (3) the name of the licensee providing the medical cannabis waste;26 and27 (4) photographs of the disposed medical cannabis waste.28 (d) The seeds, roots, stems, stalks and fan leaves of cannabis plants29 may be disposed of by a licensee without a disposal facility license. Such30 disposal may be conducted on the licensed premises by open burning,31 incineration, burying, mulching, composting or any other method32 approved by the secretary.33 New Sec. 27. (a) On or before January 1, 2026, the director shall34 contract with a private laboratory for the purpose of conducting35 compliance and quality assurance testing of licensed laboratories to36 provide public safety and ensure that quality medical cannabis and medical37 cannabis products are available to patients and caregivers.38 (b) Any private laboratory contracting with the director shall:39 (1) Be prohibited from conducting any other commercial medical40 cannabis or medical cannabis product testing in this state;41 (2) have held a license, permit or other certification to test medical42 cannabis issued by another state for at least one year prior to contracting43 with the director and have entered into a contract with another state forHB 2678 261 compliance and quality assurance testing;2 (3) not employ, or be owned by any individual:3 (A) That has a direct or indirect financial interest in any licensee;4 (B) whose spouse, parent, child, spouse of a child, sibling or spouse5 of a sibling has an active application for a license; or6 (C) that is a member of the board of directors of any licensee; and7 (4) be accessible for any medical cannabis testing needs of any state8 agency, including, but not limited to, the department, the Kansas bureau of9 investigation and the state fire marshal.10 New Sec. 28. (a) The director shall recommend to the secretary of11 revenue rules and regulations as necessary to develop acceptable testing12 and research practices in consultation with the private laboratory13 contracting with the director under section 27, and amendments thereto.14 Such rules and regulations shall, include, but are not limited to, testing,15 standards, quality control analysis, equipment certification and calibration16 and identification of chemicals and other substances used in bona fide17 research methods.18 (b) The director shall also recommend to the secretary of revenue19 rules and regulations for laboratory testing performed under this act20 concerning:21 (1) The cleanliness and orderliness of the premises of a licensed22 laboratory and the security of such facilities;23 (2) the inspection, cleaning and maintenance of equipment or utensils24 used for the analysis of test samples;25 (3) testing procedures and standards for cannabinoid and terpenoid26 potency and safe levels of contaminants and appropriate remediation and27 validation procedures;28 (4) controlled access areas for the storage of medical cannabis,29 medical cannabis concentrate and medical cannabis product test samples,30 medical cannabis waste and reference standards;31 (5) records to be retained and computer systems to be utilized by the32 laboratory;33 (6) the possession, storage and use by the laboratory of reagents,34 solutions and reference standards;35 (7) a certificate of analysis for each lot of reference standard;36 (8) the transport and disposal of medical cannabis waste;37 (9) the use of the electronic inventory tracking system established38 under section 31, and amendments thereto, to ensure all test harvest and39 production batches or samples containing medical cannabis, medical40 cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis products are identified and41 tracked from the point such batches or samples are transferred from a42 licensee or a patient or caregiver through the point of transfer, destruction43 or disposal. Such inventory tracking system shall include the results of anyHB 2678 271 tests that are conducted;2 (10) the employment of laboratory personnel;3 (11) a written standard operating procedure manual to be maintained4 and updated by the laboratory;5 (12) the successful participation in a proficiency testing program6 approved by the director for conducting testing in order to obtain and7 maintain certification;8 (13) the establishment of and adherence to a quality assurance and9 quality control program to ensure sufficient monitoring of laboratory10 processes and the quality of results reported;11 (14) the immediate recall of medical cannabis, medical cannabis12 concentrate or medical cannabis products that test above allowable13 thresholds or are otherwise determined to be unsafe;14 (15) the establishment of a system to document the complete chain of15 custody for batches or samples from receipt through disposal;16 (16) the establishment of a system to retain and maintain all required17 records, including business records, and processes to ensure results are18 reported in a timely and accurate manner; and19 (17) any other aspect of laboratory testing of medical cannabis,20 medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product deemed21 necessary by the director.22 New Sec. 29. (a) A laboratory shall:23 (1) Comply with all applicable local ordinances, including, but not24 limited to, any zoning, occupancy, licensing and building codes;25 (2) establish policies to prevent the existence or appearance of undue26 commercial, financial or other influences that diminish, or have the effect27 of diminishing the public confidence in, the competency, impartiality and28 integrity of the testing processes or results of such laboratory. Such29 policies shall prohibit employees, owners or agents of a laboratory who30 participate in any aspect of the analysis and results of a sample from31 improperly influencing the testing process, manipulating data or benefiting32 from any ongoing financial, employment, personal or business relationship33 with the licensee that submitted the sample for testing;34 (3) not test samples for any licensee in which an owner, employee or35 agent of the laboratory has any form of ownership or financial interest in36 such licensee that submitted the sample for testing;37 (4) promptly provide the director access to:38 (A) A report of a test and any underlying data that is conducted on a39 sample; and40 (B) laboratory premises and to any material or information requested41 by the director to determine compliance with the requirements of this42 section;43 (5) retain all results of laboratory tests conducted on medicalHB 2678 281 cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis products for a2 period of at least two years and make such results available to the director3 upon request;4 (6) establish standards, policies and procedures for laboratory testing5 procedures;6 (7) (A) test samples from each harvest batch or product batch, as7 appropriate, of medical cannabis, medical cannabis concentrate and8 medical cannabis product for each of the following categories of testing,9 consistent with standards developed by the director:10 (i) Microbials;11 (ii) mycotoxins;12 (iii) residual solvents;13 (iv) pesticides;14 (v) tetrahydrocannabinol and other cannabinoid potency;15 (vi) terpenoid potency type and concentration;16 (vii) moisture content;17 (viii) homogeneity; and18 (ix) heavy metals; and19 (B) only accept a test batch of usable medical cannabis, medical20 cannabis concentrate or medical cannabis product for testing purposes21 from a:22 (i) Cultivator that has separated each harvest lot of usable cannabis23 into harvest batches containing not more than 10 pounds, except harvest24 batches of fresh, uncured medical cannabis or fresh or frozen medical25 cannabis to be sold to a processor in order to make a concentrate may be26 separated into batches containing not more than 20 pounds; and27 (ii) processor that has separated each medical cannabis production lot28 into production batches containing not more than 10 pounds.29 (b) A laboratory may:30 (1) Accept samples of medical cannabis, medical cannabis31 concentrate or medical cannabis product from:32 (A) A licensee or any entity authorized to possess such samples only33 for testing and research purposes, including the provision of testing34 services for samples submitted by a licensee for product development. A35 laboratory shall not be prohibited from obtaining a license under this act36 due to such facility performing other testing and research on medical37 cannabis and medical cannabis products; or38 (B) an individual person for testing if such person is a:39 (i) Patient or caregiver and such person provides the laboratory with40 the individual's valid identification card and a valid photo identification; or41 (ii) participant in an approved clinical or observational study42 conducted by a research facility as described in section 15(c), and43 amendments thereto; andHB 2678 291 (2) transfer samples of medical cannabis, medical cannabis2 concentrate and medical cannabis product to or from another laboratory or3 any licensee. All laboratory reports shall identify the laboratory that4 performed the testing of the sample.5 (c) (1) A laboratory shall be inspected prior to initial licensure and6 further inspected up to six times annually by an inspector approved by the7 director. The director may enter the licensed premises of a laboratory to8 conduct investigations and additional inspections when the director9 believes an investigation or additional inspection is necessary due to a10 possible violation of this act.11 (2) After January 1, 2026, accreditation by the national environmental12 laboratory accreditation program, ANSI/ASQ national accreditation board13 or another accrediting body approved by the director shall be required for14 licensure of a laboratory and the renewal thereof.15 New Sec. 30. (a) The director shall recommend such rules and16 regulations as necessary to implement the provisions of this act. After a17 public hearing on a proposed rule and regulation has been held as required18 by law, the director shall submit such proposed rule and regulation to the19 secretary of revenue, who shall adopt the rule and regulation upon20 approval by the secretary. Such rules and regulations shall include, but are21 not limited to:22 (1) Establishing internal control policies and procedures for the23 review of license applications and the issuance and renewal of licenses;24 (2) establishing fees for licenses;25 (3) verifying the sources of financing for license applicants;26 (4) establishing policies and procedures for the reporting and tracking27 of:28 (A) Adverse events;29 (B) product recalls; and30 (C) complaints; and31 (5) any other policies and procedures recommended by the Kansas32 medical cannabis advisory board.33 (b) It is intended by this act that the director shall have broad34 discretionary powers to govern the traffic in medical cannabis in this state35 and to strictly enforce all the provisions of this act in the interest of36 sanitation, purity of products, truthful representation and honest dealings37 in such manner as generally will promote the public health and welfare.38 All valid rules and regulations adopted under the provisions of this act39 shall be absolutely binding upon all licensees and enforceable by the40 director through the power of suspension or revocation of licenses.41 New Sec. 31. The director shall establish and maintain an electronic42 database to monitor medical cannabis from its seed source through its43 cultivation, testing, processing, distribution and dispensing. The directorHB 2678 301 may contract with a separate entity to establish and maintain all or any2 portion of the electronic database on behalf of the agency.3 New Sec. 32. (a) There is hereby established the medical cannabis4 regulation fund in the state treasury. The director of the Kansas medical5 cannabis agency shall administer the medical cannabis regulation fund and6 remit all moneys collected from the payment of all fees and fines imposed7 by the director pursuant to the Kansas medical cannabis act and any other8 moneys received by or on behalf of the director pursuant to this act to the9 state treasurer in accordance with the provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and10 amendments thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance, the state11 treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in the state treasury to the credit12 of the medical cannabis regulation fund. Moneys credited to the medical13 cannabis regulation fund shall only be expended or transferred as provided14 in this section. Expenditures from such fund shall be made in accordance15 with appropriation acts upon warrants of the director of accounts and16 reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved by the director, or the17 director's designee.18 (b) Moneys in the medical cannabis regulation fund shall be used for19 costs related to the regulation and enforcement of the cultivation,20 possession, processing and sale of medical cannabis by the Kansas medical21 cannabis agency.22 New Sec. 33. (a) In addition to or in lieu of any other civil or criminal23 penalty as provided by law, the director may impose a civil penalty or24 suspend or revoke a license upon a finding that the licensee committed a25 violation as provided in this section.26 (b) (1) Upon a finding that a licensee has sold, transferred or27 otherwise distributed medical cannabis in violation of this act, the director28 may impose a civil fine not to exceed $1,000 for a first offense and not to29 exceed $5,000 for a second or subsequent offense.30 (2) Upon a showing that a licensee acted willfully or with gross31 negligence in selling, transferring or otherwise distributing medical32 cannabis in violation of this act, the director may suspend or revoke such33 licensee's license.34 (c) (1) Upon a finding that a patient or caregiver intentionally35 diverted medical cannabis or medical cannabis products to an unauthorized36 person in violation of this act, the director may impose a civil fine not to37 exceed $2,000 for a first offense and not to exceed $5,000 for a second or38 subsequent offense.39 (2) Upon a showing that a patient or caregiver acted willfully or with40 gross negligence in intentionally diverting medical cannabis or medical41 cannabis products to an unauthorized person in violation of this act, the42 director may suspend or revoke such patient's or caregiver's identification43 card.HB 2678 311 (d) Upon a showing that a patient or caregiver violated any reporting2 requirements with respect to medical cannabis cultivated by such patient3 or caregiver, the director may impose a civil fine not to exceed $250.4 New Sec. 34. No state or municipal law enforcement agency, or any5 officer or employee thereof, shall provide any identifying information6 concerning a patient or caregiver who has been issued an identification7 card pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto, to any federal law8 enforcement agency or law enforcement agency of another jurisdiction for9 the purpose of any investigation of a crime involving possession of10 cannabis, unless such law enforcement agency recognizes the lawful11 purchase, possession and consumption of medical cannabis under the12 Kansas medical cannabis act.13 New Sec. 35. Nothing in this act shall prohibit a commercial real14 property owner or a business owner from prohibiting the consumption of15 medical cannabis or medical cannabis products on such owner's premises16 or within 10 feet of any entryway to such premises.17 New Sec. 36. (a) No rental agreement for subsidized housing shall18 contain a provision or impose a rule that prohibits a patient or caregiver19 who has been issued an identification card pursuant to section 9, and20 amendments thereto, to agree, as a condition of tenancy, to a prohibition or21 restriction on the possession or use of medical cannabis in such person's22 residence. A landlord may impose reasonable restrictions related to the use23 of medical cannabis by any person in public areas of the premises and such24 possession and use shall be in accordance with this act.25 (b) As used in this section:26 (1) "Rental agreement" means an agreement, written or oral, and27 valid rules and regulations embodying the terms and conditions concerning28 the use and occupancy of a dwelling unit; and29 (2) (A) "Subsidized housing" means a rental unit for which the30 landlord receives rental assistance payments under a rental assistance31 agreement administered by the United States department of agriculture32 under the multi-family housing rental assistance program under title V of33 the federal housing act of 1949 or receives housing assistance payments34 under a housing assistance payment contract administered by the United35 States department of housing and urban development under the housing36 choice voucher program, the new construction program, the substantial37 rehabilitation program or the moderate rehabilitation program under38 section 8 of the United States housing act of 1937.39 (B) "Subsidized housing" does not include owner-occupied housing40 accommodations of four units or fewer.41 New Sec. 37. No patient or caregiver who has been issued an42 identification card pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto, shall be43 denied the ability to purchase or possess a firearm, ammunition or firearmHB 2678 321 accessories solely on the basis that such individual purchases, possesses or2 consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions of this act.3 New Sec. 38. (a) A patient or caregiver who has been issued an4 identification card pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto, shall not5 be denied eligibility in any public assistance or social welfare programs,6 including, but not limited to, the state medical assistance program, the7 supplemental nutrition assistance program, the women, infants and8 children nutrition program and the temporary assistance for needy families9 program solely on the basis that such individual purchases, possesses or10 consumes medical cannabis in accordance with this act.11 (b) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require the state12 medical assistance program or any other public assistance program to13 reimburse an individual for the costs associated with the purchase,14 possession or consumption of medical cannabis, unless otherwise required15 by federal law.16 (c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a person17 from taking any action necessary to procure or retain any monetary benefit18 provided under federal law, or any rules and regulations adopted19 thereunder, or to obtain or maintain any license, certificate, registration or20 other legal status issued or bestowed under federal law, or any rules and21 regulations adopted thereunder.22 New Sec. 39. (a) The board of education of a school district may23 prohibit the consumption of medical cannabis on the premises of any24 school operated by such school district except by patients who have been25 issued an identification card pursuant to section 9, and amendments26 thereto, and who consume medical cannabis through any means other than27 smoking in accordance with the provisions of this act.28 (b) No student shall be denied participation in any curricular or29 extracurricular activities solely on the basis that such student possesses or30 consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions of this act.31 New Sec. 40. (a) The governing body or the chief administrative32 officer, if no governing body exists, of a postsecondary educational33 institution, as defined in K.S.A. 74-3201b, and amendments thereto, shall34 permit any student enrolled in such postsecondary educational institution35 who is a patient that has been issued an identification card pursuant to36 section 9, and amendments thereto, to possess and consume medical37 cannabis in accordance with the provisions of this act.38 (b) No student shall be denied participation in any curricular or39 extracurricular activities solely on the basis that such student possesses or40 consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions of this act.41 New Sec. 41. The provisions of the Kansas medical cannabis act are42 hereby declared to be severable. If any part or provision of the Kansas43 medical cannabis act is held to be void, invalid or unconstitutional, suchHB 2678 331 part or provision shall not affect or impair any of the remaining parts or2 provisions of the Kansas medical cannabis act and any such remaining3 parts or provisions shall continue in full force and effect.4 New Sec. 42. (a) A covered entity, solely on the basis that an5 individual consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions6 of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments7 thereto, shall not:8 (1) Consider such individual ineligible to receive an anatomical gift9 or organ transplant;10 (2) deny medical and other services related to organ transplantation,11 including evaluation, surgery, counseling and post-transplantation12 treatment and services;13 (3) refuse to refer the individual to a transplant center or a related14 specialist for the purpose of evaluation or receipt of an organ transplant;15 (4) refuse to place such individual on an organ transplant waiting list;16 or17 (5) place such individual at a lower-priority position on an organ18 transplant waiting list than the position at which such individual would19 have been placed if not for such individual's consumption of medical20 cannabis.21 (b) A covered entity may take into account an individual's22 consumption of medical cannabis when making treatment or coverage23 recommendations or decisions, solely to the extent that such consumption24 has been found by a physician, following an individualized evaluation of25 the individual, to be medically significant to the provision of the26 anatomical gift.27 (c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a covered28 entity to make a referral or recommendation for or perform a medically29 inappropriate organ transplant.30 (d) As used in this section:31 (1) The terms "anatomical gift," "covered entity" and "organ32 transplant" mean the same as such terms are defined in K.S.A. 65-3276,33 and amendments thereto; and34 (2) the term "medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section35 2, and amendments thereto.36 New Sec. 43. (a) No order shall be issued pursuant to K.S.A. 38-37 2242, 38-2243 or 38-2244, and amendments thereto, if the sole basis for38 the threat to the child's safety or welfare is that the child resides with an39 individual who consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the40 provisions of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and41 amendments thereto, or the child consumes medical cannabis in42 accordance with such act.43 (b) This section shall be a part of and supplemental to the revisedHB 2678 341 Kansas code for care of children.2 New Sec. 44. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any3 person, board, commission or similar body that determines the4 qualifications of individuals for licensure, certification or registration shall5 not disqualify an individual from licensure, certification or registration6 solely because such individual consumes medical cannabis in accordance7 with the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments8 thereto.9 (b) The provisions of this section shall not apply to the:10 (1) Kansas commission on peace officers' standards and training;11 (2) Kansas highway patrol;12 (3) office of the attorney general;13 (4) department of health and environment; or14 (5) division of alcoholic beverage control.15 New Sec. 45. (a) There is hereby levied a tax at the rate of 8% on the16 gross receipts from the sale of medical cannabis and medical cannabis17 products by any licensee to patients and caregivers.18 (b) The tax imposed by this section shall be paid by the patient or19 caregiver to the licensee. It shall be the duty of each licensee subject to this20 section to collect from the patient or caregiver the full amount of such tax21 or an amount equal as nearly as possible or practicable to the average22 equivalent thereto. Each licensee collecting the tax imposed hereunder23 shall be responsible for paying over the amount of the tax collected to the24 department of revenue in the manner prescribed by section 46, and25 amendments thereto, and the department of revenue shall administer and26 enforce the collection of such tax.27 (c) As used in this section, "licensee" means the same as defined in28 section 2, and amendments thereto.29 New Sec. 46. (a) The taxes levied and collected pursuant to section30 45, and amendments thereto, shall become due and payable monthly or on31 or before the 25th day of the month immediately succeeding the month in32 which such tax is collected, except that any cannabis business filing an33 annual or quarterly return under the Kansas retailers' sales tax act as34 prescribed in K.S.A. 79-3607, and amendments thereto, shall, upon such35 conditions as the secretary of revenue may prescribe, pay the tax required36 by section 45, and amendments thereto, on the same basis and at the same37 time that the licensee pays such retailers' sales tax. Each licensee shall38 make a true report to the department of revenue on a form prescribed by39 the secretary of revenue, providing such information as may be necessary40 to determine the amounts to which any such tax shall apply for all gross41 receipts derived from the sale of medical cannabis and medical cannabis42 products for the applicable month or months, the report of which shall be43 accompanied by the tax disclosed thereby. Records of gross receiptsHB 2678 351 derived from the sale of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products2 shall be kept separate and apart from the records of other retail sales made3 by a licensee in order to facilitate the examination of books and records.4 (b) The secretary of revenue or the secretary's authorized5 representative shall have the right at all reasonable times during business6 hours to make such examination and inspection of the books and records7 of a licensee as may be necessary to determine the accuracy of such8 reports required by this section.9 (c) The secretary of revenue is hereby authorized to administer and10 collect the tax imposed under section 45, and amendments thereto, and to11 adopt such rules and regulations as may be necessary for the efficient and12 effective administration and enforcement of the collection thereof.13 Whenever any licensee liable to pay the tax imposed by section 45, and14 amendments thereto, refuses or neglects to pay the amount of the tax15 collected, the amount, including any penalty, shall be collected in the16 manner prescribed for the collection of the retailers' sales tax by K.S.A.17 79-3617, and amendments thereto.18 (d) The secretary of revenue shall remit all revenue collected under19 the provisions of section 45, and amendments thereto, to the state treasurer20 in accordance with the provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments21 thereto. Upon receipt of each such remittance, the state treasurer shall22 deposit such amount to the credit of the medical cannabis regulation fund.23 Such amount shall only be used for the following purposes and as24 administered by the director of the Kansas medical cannabis agency25 through the adoption of rules and regulations:26 (1) 10% to the state general fund;27 (2) 15% to support child care;28 (3) 10% to support economic development in the area immediately29 surrounding any licensee;30 (4) 10% to mental health;31 (5) 40% to low-cost housing; and32 (6) 15% to fund property tax rebates in the area immediately33 surrounding any licensee.34 (e) If deemed necessary by the secretary of revenue to secure the35 collection of any tax, penalties or interest due or to become due under the36 provisions of section 45, and amendments thereto, the secretary may37 require any person subject to such tax to file a bond with the director of38 taxation under conditions established by and in such form and amount as39 prescribed by rules and regulations adopted by the secretary.40 (f) The amount of tax imposed by section 45, and amendments41 thereto, shall be assessed within three years after the return is filed, and no42 proceedings in court for the collection of such taxes shall be initiated after43 the expiration of such period except in the cases of fraud. In the case of aHB 2678 361 false or fraudulent return with intent to evade tax, the tax may be assessed2 or a proceeding in court for collection of such tax may be initiated at any3 time within two years from the discovery of such fraud. No refund or4 credit shall be allowed by the director after three years from the date of5 payment of the tax as provided in section 45, and amendments thereto,6 unless a claim therefor is filed by the taxpayer before the expiration of7 such period. No suit or action to recover on any claim for refund shall be8 commenced until after the expiration of six months from the date of filing9 a claim therefor with the director. Before the expiration of time prescribed10 in this section for the assessment of additional tax or the filing of a claim11 for refund, the director is hereby authorized to enter into an agreement in12 writing with the taxpayer consenting to the extension of the periods of13 limitations for the assessment of tax or for the filing of a claim for refund14 at any time prior to the expiration of the periods of limitations. The period15 so agreed upon may be extended by subsequent agreements in writing16 made before the expiration of the period previously agreed upon.17 New Sec. 47. (a) On or before the 25th day of each calendar month,18 every licensee subject to the provisions of section 45, and amendments19 thereto, shall make a return to the director of taxation upon forms20 prescribed and furnished by the director, stating:21 (1) The name and address of the licensee;22 (2) the total amount of gross sales subject to the tax imposed by23 section 45, and amendments thereto, during the preceding calendar month;24 and25 (3) any other pertinent information the director requires.26 (b) At the time of making the return, the person making the return27 shall pay to the director of taxation the amount of tax levied by section 45,28 and amendments thereto, as applicable to the person submitting the return.29 The director of taxation may extend the time for submitting returns and30 paying the tax for any period not to exceed 60 days under rules and31 regulations adopted by the secretary of revenue.32 New Sec. 48. (a) If any taxpayer fails to pay the tax levied by section33 45, and amendments thereto, at the time required by or under the34 provisions of section 46, and amendments thereto, interest at the rate per35 month prescribed by K.S.A. 79-2968(a), and amendments thereto, shall be36 added to the unpaid balance of the tax from the date the tax was due until37 paid.38 (b) If any taxpayer, due to negligence or intentional disregard, fails to39 file a return or pay the tax due at the time required by or under the40 provisions of section 46, and amendments thereto, there shall be added to41 the tax a penalty in an amount equal to 10% of the unpaid balance of tax42 due.43 (c) If any person fails to make a return or pay any tax within sixHB 2678 371 months from the date the return or tax was due, except in the case of an2 extension of time granted by the secretary of revenue or the secretary's3 designee, there shall be added to the tax due a penalty equal to 25% of the4 unpaid balance of such tax due.5 (d) If any taxpayer fails to file a return or pay the tax that is due at the6 time required under the provisions of section 45, and amendments thereto,7 there shall be added to the tax a penalty in an amount equal to 1% of the8 unpaid balance of the tax due for each month or fraction thereof during9 which such failure continues, not to exceed 24% in the aggregate, plus10 interest at the rate prescribed by K.S.A. 79-2968(a), and amendments11 thereto, from the date the tax was due until paid. Notwithstanding the12 foregoing, in the event an assessment is issued following a field audit for13 any period for which a return was filed by the taxpayer and all of the tax14 was paid pursuant to such return, a penalty shall be imposed for the period15 included in the assessment in an amount equal to 1% per month, not to16 exceed 10% of the unpaid balance of tax due shown in the notice of such17 assessment. If, after review of a return for any period included in the18 assessment, the secretary or the secretary's designee determines that the19 underpayment of tax was due to the failure of the taxpayer to make a20 reasonable attempt to comply with the provisions of section 45, and21 amendments thereto, such penalty shall be imposed for the period included22 in the assessment in an amount equal to 25% of the unpaid balance of tax23 due.24 (e) If any taxpayer fails to pay any tax or make, render or sign any25 return or supply any information within the time required under the26 provisions of section 46, and amendments thereto, with fraudulent intent,27 there shall be added to the tax a penalty in an amount equal to 50% of the28 unpaid balance of tax due.29 (f) Penalty or interest applied under the provisions of subsections (a)30 and (d) shall be in addition to the penalty added under any other provisions31 of this section, but the provisions of subsections (b) and (c) shall be32 mutually exclusive of each other.33 (g) Whenever the secretary of revenue or the secretary's designee34 determines that the failure of the taxpayer to comply with the provisions of35 subsections (b) and (c) was due to reasonable causes, the secretary or the36 secretary's designee may waive or reduce any of the penalties and may37 reduce the interest rate to the underpayment rate prescribed and38 determined for the applicable period under section 6621 of the federal39 internal revenue code as in effect on January 1, 2025, upon making a40 record of the reasons therefor.41 (h) In addition to all other penalties provided by this section, any42 person who willfully fails to make a return or pay any tax levied by section43 45, and amendments thereto, makes a false or fraudulent return, fails toHB 2678 381 keep any books or records necessary to determine the accuracy of such2 person's reports, willfully violates any regulations of the secretary of3 revenue for the enforcement and administration of the provisions of4 sections 45 through 50, and amendments thereto, aids and abets another in5 attempting to evade the payment of any tax levied by section 45, and6 amendments thereto, or violates any other provision of sections 45 through7 50, and amendments thereto, shall, upon conviction thereof, be fined not8 less than $100 nor more than $1,000, be imprisoned in the county jail not9 less than one month nor more than six months or be both so fined and10 imprisoned in the discretion of the court.11 (i) If a licensee violates any of the provisions of sections 45 through12 50, and amendments thereto, the director of alcoholic beverage control13 may suspend or revoke the license of such licensee or impose a civil fine14 on the licensee or permit holder.15 (j) The provisions of K.S.A. 75-5133, 79-3605, 79-3609, 79-3610,16 79-3611, 79-3612, 79-3613, 79-3615, 79-3617 and 79-3619, and17 amendments thereto, related to enforcement, collection and administration,18 insofar as practicable, shall have full force and effect with respect to taxes19 levied by section 45, and amendments thereto. As used in such statutes and20 applied to sections 45 through 50, and amendments thereto, "director"21 means the director of taxation. The provisions of K.S.A. 74-2422, 74-22 2425, 74-2426 and 74-2427, and amendments thereto, related to the23 approval of rules and regulations, the adoption of uniform rules and24 regulations for such hearings and appeals from orders of the director of25 taxation and prescribing the duties of county attorneys with respect to such26 appeals, insofar as practicable, shall have full force and effect with respect27 to taxes levied by and proceedings under the provisions of sections 4528 through 50, and amendments thereto.29 New Sec. 49. The director of alcoholic beverage control shall30 promptly notify the director of taxation of any issuance of a license with31 which the licensee shall sell medical cannabis or medical cannabis32 products to patients or caregivers. The notice shall include the name of the33 licensee and the address of the licensed premises. The director of alcoholic34 beverage control shall likewise notify the director of taxation of any35 revocation, suspension or expiration of any such license.36 New Sec. 50. The director of taxation shall administer the provisions37 of sections 45 through 50, and amendments thereto. The secretary of38 revenue shall adopt rules and regulations necessary to carry out the39 provisions and intent of sections 45 through 50, and amendments thereto.40 The director of taxation shall appoint such agents and employees as the41 secretary may deem necessary for the proper enforcement and42 administration of such sections. When, in the judgment of the director of43 taxation, it is necessary to secure the collection of any such tax, penaltiesHB 2678 391 or interest due thereon or to become due under such sections, the director2 may require any person subject to such tax to file a bond with the director3 in such form and amount as the director may prescribe.4 New Sec. 51. (a) Subject to the provisions of K.S.A. 44-1018, and5 amendments thereto, it shall be unlawful for any person:6 (1) To refuse to sell or rent after the making of a bona fide offer, to7 fail to transmit a bona fide offer or refuse to negotiate in good faith for the8 sale or rental of, or otherwise make unavailable or deny, real property to9 any person because such person consumes medical cannabis in accordance10 with the provisions of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq.,11 and amendments thereto;12 (2) to discriminate against any person in the terms, conditions or13 privileges of sale or rental of real property, or in the provision of services14 or facilities in connection therewith, because such person consumes15 medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions of the Kansas medical16 cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto; and17 (3) to discriminate against any person in such person's use or18 occupancy of real property because such person associates with another19 person who consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions20 of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments21 thereto.22 (b) (1) It shall be unlawful for any person or other entity whose23 business includes engaging in real estate-related transactions to24 discriminate against any person in making available such a transaction, or25 in the terms or conditions of such a transaction, because such person or26 any person associated with such person in connection with any real estate27 related transaction consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the28 provisions of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and29 amendments thereto.30 (2) Nothing in this subsection prohibits a person engaged in the31 business of furnishing appraisals of real property to take into consideration32 factors other than an individual's consumption of medical cannabis in33 accordance with the provisions of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section34 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.35 (3) As used in this subsection, "real estate related transaction" means36 the same as that term is defined in K.S.A. 44-1017, and amendments37 thereto.38 (c) It shall be unlawful to coerce, intimidate, threaten or interfere with39 any person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of such person's40 having exercised or enjoyed, or on account of such person's having aided41 or encouraged any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right42 granted or protected by subsection (a) or (b).43 (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a personHB 2678 401 from taking any action necessary to procure or retain any monetary benefit2 provided under federal law, or any rules and regulations adopted3 thereunder, or to obtain or maintain any license, certificate, registration or4 other legal status issued or bestowed under federal law, or any rules and5 regulations adopted thereunder.6 (e) The provisions of this section shall be a part of and supplemental7 to the Kansas act against discrimination.8 New Sec. 52. (a) Any individual or group health insurance policy,9 medical service plan, contract, hospital service corporation contract,10 hospital and medical service corporation contract, fraternal benefit society11 or health maintenance organization, municipal group-funded pool and the12 state employee healthcare benefits plan shall not exclude coverage for an13 insured individual solely on the basis that such insured individual14 purchases, possesses or consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the15 provisions of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and16 amendments thereto.17 (b) No health insurance exchange established within this state or any18 health insurance exchange administered by the federal government or its19 agencies within this state shall exclude from coverage an insured20 individual solely on the basis that such insured individual purchases,21 possesses or consumes medical cannabis in accordance with the provisions22 of the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments23 thereto.24 (c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a person25 from taking any action necessary to procure or retain any monetary benefit26 provided under federal law, or any rules and regulations adopted27 thereunder, or to obtain or maintain any license, certificate, registration or28 other legal status issued or bestowed under federal law, or any rules and29 regulations adopted thereunder.30 Sec. 53. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 8-1567 is hereby amended to read as31 follows: 8-1567. (a) Driving under the influence is operating or attempting32 to operate any vehicle within this state while:33 (1) The alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath as34 shown by any competent evidence, including other competent evidence, as35 defined in K.S.A. 8-1013(f)(1), and amendments thereto, is 0.08 or more;36 (2) the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath, as37 measured within three hours of the time of operating or attempting to38 operate a vehicle, is 0.08 or more;39 (3) under the influence of alcohol to a degree that renders the person40 incapable of safely driving a vehicle;41 (4) under the influence of any drug or combination of drugs to a42 degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a vehicle; or43 (5) under the influence of a combination of alcohol and any drug orHB 2678 411 drugs to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a2 vehicle.3 (b) (1) Driving under the influence is:4 (A) On a first conviction, a class B, nonperson misdemeanor. The5 person convicted shall be sentenced to not less than 48 consecutive hours6 nor more than six months' imprisonment, or in the court's discretion 1007 hours of public service, and fined not less than $750 nor more than $1,000;8 (B) on a second conviction, a class A, nonperson misdemeanor. The9 person convicted shall be sentenced to not less than 90 days nor more than10 one year's imprisonment and fined not less than $1,250 nor more than11 $1,750. The following conditions shall apply to such sentence:12 (i) As a condition of any probation granted under this subsection, the13 person shall serve at least 120 hours of confinement. The hours of14 confinement shall include at least 48 hours of imprisonment and otherwise15 may be served by a combination of: Imprisonment; a work release16 program, if such work release program requires such person to return to17 the confinement at the end of each day in the work release program; or a18 house arrest program pursuant to K.S.A. 21-6609, and amendments19 thereto;20 (ii) (a) if the person is placed into a work release program or placed21 under a house arrest program for any portion of the minimum of 120 hours22 of confinement mandated by this subsection, the person shall receive hour-23 for-hour credit for time served in such program until the minimum24 sentence is met. If the person is placed into a work release program or25 placed under a house arrest program for more than the minimum of 12026 hours of confinement mandated by this subsection, the person shall receive27 hour-for-hour credit for time served in such program until the minimum of28 120 hours of confinement is completed, and thereafter, the person shall29 receive day-for-day credit for time served in such program unless30 otherwise ordered by the court; and31 (b) when in a work release program, the person shall only be given32 credit for the time served in confinement at the end of and continuing to33 the beginning of the person's work day. When under a house arrest34 program, the person shall be monitored by an electronic monitoring device35 that verifies the person's location and shall only be given credit for the36 time served within the boundaries of the person's residence;37 (C) on a third conviction, a class A, nonperson misdemeanor, except38 as provided in subsection (b)(1)(D). The person convicted shall be39 sentenced to not less than 90 days nor more than one year's imprisonment40 and fined not less than $1,750 nor more than $2,500. The following41 conditions shall apply to such sentence:42 (i) As a condition of any probation granted under this subsection, the43 person shall serve at least 30 days of confinement. After at least 48HB 2678 421 consecutive hours of imprisonment, the remainder of the period of2 confinement may be served by a combination of: Imprisonment; a work3 release program, if such work release program requires such person to4 return to the confinement at the end of each day in the work release5 program; or a house arrest program pursuant to K.S.A. 21-6609, and6 amendments thereto; and7 (ii) (a) if the person is placed into a work release program or placed8 under a house arrest program for any portion of the minimum of 30 days9 of confinement mandated by this subsection, the person shall receive hour-10 for-hour credit for time served in such program for the first 240 hours of11 confinement, and thereafter, the person shall receive day-for-day credit for12 time served in such program unless otherwise ordered by the court; and13 (b) when in a work release program, the person shall only be given14 credit for the time served in confinement at the end of and continuing to15 the beginning of the person's work day. When under a house arrest16 program, the person shall be monitored by an electronic monitoring device17 that verifies the person's location and shall only be given credit for the18 time served within the boundaries of the person's residence;19 (D) on a third conviction, a severity level 6, nonperson felony if the20 person has a prior conviction which occurred within the preceding 1021 years, not including any period of incarceration. The following conditions22 shall apply to such sentence:23 (i) As a condition of any probation granted under this subsection, the24 person shall serve at least 30 days of confinement. After at least 4825 consecutive hours of imprisonment, the remainder of the period of26 confinement may be served by a combination of: Imprisonment; a work27 release program, if such work release program requires such person to28 return to the confinement at the end of each day in the work release29 program; or a house arrest program pursuant to K.S.A. 21-6609, and30 amendments thereto; and31 (ii) (a) if the person is placed into a work release program or placed32 under a house arrest program for any portion of the minimum of 30 days33 of confinement mandated by this subsection, the person shall receive hour-34 for-hour credit for time served in such program for the first 240 hours of35 confinement, and thereafter, the person shall receive day-for-day credit for36 time served in such program unless otherwise ordered by the court; and37 (b) when in a work release program, the person shall only be given38 credit for the time served in confinement at the end of and continuing to39 the beginning of the person's work day. When under a house arrest40 program, the person shall be monitored by an electronic monitoring device41 that verifies the person's location and shall only be given credit for the42 time served within the boundaries of the person's residence; and43 (E) on a fourth or subsequent conviction, a severity level 6,HB 2678 431 nonperson felony. The following conditions shall apply to such sentence:2 (i) As a condition of any probation granted under this subsection, the3 person shall serve at least 30 days of confinement. After at least 484 consecutive hours of imprisonment, the remainder of the period of5 confinement may be served by a combination of: Imprisonment; a work6 release program, if such work release program requires such person to7 return to the confinement at the end of each day in the work release8 program; or a house arrest program pursuant to K.S.A. 21-6609, and9 amendments thereto; and10 (ii) (a) if the person is placed into a work release program or placed11 under a house arrest program for any portion of the minimum of 30 days12 of confinement mandated by this subsection, the person shall receive hour-13 for-hour credit for time served in such program for the first 240 hours of14 confinement, and thereafter, the person shall receive day-for-day credit for15 time served in such program unless otherwise ordered by the court; and16 (b) when in a work release program, the person shall only be given17 credit for the time served in confinement at the end of and continuing to18 the beginning of the person's work day. When under a house arrest19 program, the person shall be monitored by an electronic monitoring device20 that verifies the person's location and shall only be given credit for the21 time served within the boundaries of the person's residence.22 (2) (A) The court may order that the term of imprisonment imposed23 pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(D) or (b)(1)(E) be served in a state facility in24 the custody of the secretary of corrections in a facility designated by the25 secretary for the provision of substance abuse treatment pursuant to the26 provisions of K.S.A. 21-6804, and amendments thereto. The secretary of27 corrections may refuse to admit the person to the designated facility and28 place the person in a different state facility, or admit the person and29 subsequently transfer the person to a different state facility, if the secretary30 determines: (i) That substance abuse treatment resources or the capacity of31 the facility designated by the secretary for the incarceration and treatment32 of the person is not available; (ii) the person has failed to meaningfully33 participate in the treatment program of the designated facility; (iii) the34 person is disruptive to the security or operation of the designated facility;35 or (iv) the medical or mental health condition of the person renders the36 person unsuitable for confinement at the designated facility. The37 determination by the secretary that the person either is not to be admitted38 into the designated facility or is to be transferred from the designated39 facility is not subject to review.40 (B) In addition to the provisions of subsection (b)(1), for any41 conviction pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(D) or (b)(1)(E), if the person is42 granted probation, the court shall determine whether the person shall be43 supervised by community correctional services or court services based onHB 2678 441 the risk and needs of the person. The risk and needs of the person shall be2 determined by use of a risk assessment tool specified by the Kansas3 sentencing commission. During the probation supervision, the person shall4 be required to participate in a multidisciplinary model of services for5 substance use disorders facilitated by a Kansas department for aging and6 disability services designated care coordination agency to include7 assessment and, if appropriate, referral to a community based substance8 use disorder treatment including recovery management and mental health9 counseling as needed. The multidisciplinary team shall include the10 designated care coordination agency, the supervision officer, the Kansas11 department for aging and disability services designated treatment provider12 and the person.13 (3) In addition to the provisions of subsection (b)(1), for any14 conviction pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(C), at the time of the filing of the15 judgment form or journal entry as required by K.S.A. 21-6711 or 22-3426,16 and amendments thereto, the court shall cause a certified copy to be sent to17 the officer having the person in charge. The court shall determine whether18 the person, upon release from imprisonment, shall be supervised by19 community correctional services or court services based upon the risk and20 needs of the person. The risk and needs of the person shall be determined21 by use of a risk assessment tool specified by the Kansas sentencing22 commission. The law enforcement agency maintaining custody and control23 of a person for imprisonment shall cause a certified copy of the judgment24 form or journal entry to be sent to the supervision office designated by the25 court and upon expiration of the term of imprisonment shall deliver the26 person to a location designated by the supervision office designated by the27 court. After the term of imprisonment imposed by the court, the person28 shall be placed on supervision to community correctional services or court29 services, as determined by the court, for a mandatory one-year period of30 supervision, which such period of supervision shall not be reduced. During31 such supervision, the person shall be required to participate in a32 multidisciplinary model of services for substance use disorders facilitated33 by a Kansas department for aging and disability services designated care34 coordination agency to include assessment and, if appropriate, referral to a35 community based substance use disorder treatment including recovery36 management and mental health counseling as needed. The37 multidisciplinary team shall include the designated care coordination38 agency, the supervision officer, the Kansas department for aging and39 disability services designated treatment provider and the person. A person40 for whom a warrant has been issued by the court alleging a violation of41 this supervision shall be considered a fugitive from justice if it is found42 that the warrant cannot be served. If it is found that the person has violated43 the provisions of this supervision, the court shall determine whether theHB 2678 451 time from the issuing of the warrant to the date of the court's determination2 of an alleged violation, or any part of it, shall be counted as time served on3 supervision. Any violation of the conditions of such supervision may4 subject such person to revocation of supervision and imprisonment in jail5 for the remainder of the period of imprisonment, the remainder of the6 supervision period, or any combination or portion thereof. The term of7 supervision may be extended at the court's discretion beyond one year, and8 any violation of the conditions of such extended term of supervision may9 subject such person to the revocation of supervision and imprisonment in10 jail of up to the remainder of the original sentence, not the term of the11 extended supervision.12 (4) In addition to the provisions of subsection (b)(1), prior to13 sentencing for any conviction pursuant to subsection (b)(1)(A) or (b)(1)14 (B), the court shall order the person to participate in an alcohol and drug15 evaluation conducted by a provider in accordance with K.S.A. 8-1008, and16 amendments thereto. The person shall be required to follow any17 recommendation made by the provider after such evaluation, unless18 otherwise ordered by the court.19 (c) Any person 18 years of age or older convicted of violating this20 section or an ordinance which prohibits the acts that this section prohibits21 who had one or more children under the age of 18 years in the vehicle at22 the time of the offense shall have such person's punishment enhanced by23 one month of imprisonment. This imprisonment must be served24 consecutively to any other minimum mandatory penalty imposed for a25 violation of this section or an ordinance which prohibits the acts that this26 section prohibits. Any enhanced penalty imposed shall not exceed the27 maximum sentence allowable by law. During the service of the enhanced28 penalty, the judge may order the person on house arrest, work release or29 other conditional release.30 (d) (1) If a person is charged with a violation of subsection (a)(4) or31 (a)(5), the fact that the person is or has been entitled to use the drug under32 the laws of this state shall not constitute a defense against the charge.33 (2) A positive test result for the presence of cannabis metabolites34 shall not constitute a violation of subsection (a)(4) or (a)(5).35 (e) The court may establish the terms and time for payment of any36 fines, fees, assessments and costs imposed pursuant to this section. Any37 assessment and costs shall be required to be paid not later than 90 days38 after imposed, and any remainder of the fine shall be paid prior to the final39 release of the person by the court.40 (f) (1) In lieu of payment of a fine imposed pursuant to this section,41 the court may order that the person perform community service specified42 by the court. The person shall receive a credit on the fine imposed in an43 amount equal to $5 for each full hour spent by the person in the specifiedHB 2678 461 community service. The community service ordered by the court shall be2 required to be performed not later than one year after the fine is imposed3 or by an earlier date specified by the court. If by the required date the4 person performs an insufficient amount of community service to reduce to5 zero the portion of the fine required to be paid by the person, the6 remaining balance of the fine shall become due on that date.7 (2) The court may, in its discretion, waive any portion of a fine8 imposed pursuant to this section, except the $250 required to be remitted9 to the state treasurer pursuant to subsection (q)(3), upon a showing that the10 person successfully completed court-ordered education or treatment.11 (g) Prior to filing a complaint alleging a violation of this section, a12 prosecutor shall request and shall receive from the:13 (1) Division a record of all prior convictions obtained against such14 person for any violations of any of the motor vehicle laws of this state; and15 (2) Kansas bureau of investigation central repository all criminal16 history record information concerning such person.17 (h) The court shall electronically report every conviction of a18 violation of this section and every diversion agreement entered into in lieu19 of further criminal proceedings on a complaint alleging a violation of this20 section to the division including any finding regarding the alcohol21 concentration in the person's blood or breath. Prior to sentencing under the22 provisions of this section, the court shall request and shall receive from the23 division a record of all prior convictions obtained against such person for24 any violations of any of the motor vehicle laws of this state.25 (i) For the purpose of determining whether a conviction is a first,26 second, third, fourth or subsequent conviction in sentencing under this27 section:28 (1) Convictions for a violation of this section, or a violation of an29 ordinance of any city or resolution of any county that prohibits the acts30 that this section prohibits, or entering into a diversion agreement in lieu of31 further criminal proceedings on a complaint alleging any such violations,32 shall be taken into account, but only convictions or diversions occurring33 on or after July 1, 2001. Nothing in this provision shall be construed as34 preventing any court from considering any convictions or diversions35 occurring during the person's lifetime in determining the sentence to be36 imposed within the limits provided for a first, second, third, fourth or37 subsequent offense;38 (2) any convictions for a violation of the following sections occurring39 during a person's lifetime shall be taken into account:40 (A) Driving a commercial motor vehicle under the influence, K.S.A.41 8-2,144, and amendments thereto;42 (B) operating a vessel under the influence of alcohol or drugs, K.S.A.43 32-1131, and amendments thereto;HB 2678 471 (C) involuntary manslaughter while driving under the influence of2 alcohol or drugs, K.S.A. 21-3442, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5405(a)3 (3) or (a)(5), and amendments thereto;4 (D) aggravated battery as described in K.S.A. 21-5413(b)(3) or (b)5 (4), and amendments thereto; and6 (E) aggravated vehicular homicide, K.S.A. 21-3405a, prior to its7 repeal, or vehicular battery, K.S.A. 21-3405b, prior to its repeal, if the8 crime was committed while committing a violation of K.S.A. 8-1567, and9 amendments thereto;10 (3) "conviction" includes:11 (A) Entering into a diversion agreement in lieu of further criminal12 proceedings on a complaint alleging an offense described in subsection (i)13 (2); and14 (B) conviction of a violation of an ordinance of a city in this state, a15 resolution of a county in this state or any law of another jurisdiction that16 would constitute an offense that is comparable to the offense described in17 subsection (i)(1) or (i)(2);18 (4) multiple convictions of any crime described in subsection (i)(1) or19 (i)(2) arising from the same arrest shall only be counted as one conviction;20 (5) it is irrelevant whether an offense occurred before or after21 conviction for a previous offense; and22 (6) a person may enter into a diversion agreement in lieu of further23 criminal proceedings for a violation of this section, and amendments24 thereto, or an ordinance which prohibits the acts of this section, and25 amendments thereto, only once during the person's lifetime.26 (j) For the purposes of determining whether an offense is comparable,27 the following shall be considered:28 (1) The name of the out-of-jurisdiction offense;29 (2) the elements of the out-of-jurisdiction offense; and30 (3) whether the out-of-jurisdiction offense prohibits similar conduct31 to the conduct prohibited by the closest approximate Kansas offense.32 (k) Upon conviction of a person of a violation of this section or a33 violation of a city ordinance or county resolution prohibiting the acts34 prohibited by this section, the division, upon receiving a report of35 conviction, shall suspend, restrict or suspend and restrict the person's36 driving privileges as provided by K.S.A. 8-1014, and amendments thereto.37 (l) (1) Nothing contained in this section shall be construed as38 preventing any city from enacting ordinances, or any county from adopting39 resolutions, declaring acts prohibited or made unlawful by this act as40 unlawful or prohibited in such city or county and prescribing penalties for41 violation thereof.42 (2) The minimum penalty prescribed by any such ordinance or43 resolution shall not be less than the minimum penalty prescribed by thisHB 2678 481 section for the same violation, and the maximum penalty in any such2 ordinance or resolution shall not exceed the maximum penalty prescribed3 for the same violation.4 (3) On and after July 1, 2007, and retroactive for ordinance violations5 committed on or after July 1, 2006, an ordinance may grant to a municipal6 court jurisdiction over a violation of such ordinance which is concurrent7 with the jurisdiction of the district court over a violation of this section,8 notwithstanding that the elements of such ordinance violation are the same9 as the elements of a violation of this section that would constitute, and be10 punished as, a felony.11 (4) Any such ordinance or resolution shall authorize the court to order12 that the convicted person pay restitution to any victim who suffered loss13 due to the violation for which the person was convicted.14 (m) (1) Upon the filing of a complaint, citation or notice to appear15 alleging a person has violated a city ordinance prohibiting the acts16 prohibited by this section, and prior to conviction thereof, a city attorney17 shall request and shall receive from the:18 (A) Division a record of all prior convictions obtained against such19 person for any violations of any of the motor vehicle laws of this state; and20 (B) Kansas bureau of investigation central repository all criminal21 history record information concerning such person.22 (2) If the elements of such ordinance violation are the same as the23 elements of a violation of this section that would constitute, and be24 punished as, a felony, the city attorney shall refer the violation to the25 appropriate county or district attorney for prosecution.26 (n) No plea bargaining agreement shall be entered into nor shall any27 judge approve a plea bargaining agreement entered into for the purpose of28 permitting a person charged with a violation of this section, or a violation29 of any ordinance of a city or resolution of any county in this state which30 prohibits the acts prohibited by this section, to avoid the mandatory31 penalties established by this section or by the ordinance. For the purpose32 of this subsection, entering into a diversion agreement pursuant to K.S.A.33 12-4413 et seq. or 22-2906 et seq., and amendments thereto, shall not34 constitute plea bargaining. This subsection shall not be construed to35 prohibit an amendment or dismissal of any charge where the admissible36 evidence is not sufficient to support a conviction beyond a reasonable37 doubt on such charge.38 (o) The alternatives set out in subsection (a) may be pleaded in the39 alternative, and the state, city or county may, but shall not be required to,40 elect one or more of such alternatives prior to submission of the case to the41 fact finder.42 (p) As used in this section:43 (1) "Alcohol concentration" means the number of grams of alcoholHB 2678 491 per 100 milliliters of blood or per 210 liters of breath;2 (2) "imprisonment" includes any restrained environment in which the3 court and law enforcement agency intend to retain custody and control of a4 person and such environment has been approved by the board of county5 commissioners or the governing body of a city; and6 (3) "drug" includes toxic vapors as such term is defined in K.S.A. 21-7 5712, and amendments thereto.8 (q) (1) The amount of the increase in fines as specified in this section9 shall be remitted by the clerk of the district court to the state treasurer in10 accordance with the provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments11 thereto. Upon receipt of remittance of the increase provided in this act, the12 state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in the state treasury and the13 state treasurer shall credit 50% to the community alcoholism and14 intoxication programs fund and 50% to the Kansas department for aging15 and disability services alcohol and drug abuse treatment fund, which is16 hereby created in the state treasury.17 (2) On July 1, 2025, the director of accounts and reports shall transfer18 all moneys in the department of corrections alcohol and drug abuse19 treatment fund to the Kansas department for aging and disability services20 alcohol and drug abuse treatment fund. On July 1, 2025, all liabilities of21 the department of corrections alcohol and drug abuse treatment fund are22 hereby transferred and imposed on the Kansas department for aging and23 disability services alcohol and drug abuse treatment fund, and the24 department of corrections alcohol and drug abuse treatment fund is hereby25 abolished.26 (3) On and after July 1, 2011, the amount of $250 from each fine27 imposed pursuant to this section shall be remitted by the clerk of the28 district court to the state treasurer in accordance with the provisions of29 K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of each such30 remittance, the state treasurer shall credit the entire amount to the31 community corrections supervision fund established by K.S.A. 75-52,113,32 and amendments thereto.33 Sec. 54. K.S.A. 21-5703 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-34 5703. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture any controlled35 substance or controlled substance analog.36 (b) Violation or attempted violation of subsection (a) is a:37 (1) Drug severity level 2 felony, except as provided in subsections (b)38 (2) and (b)(3);39 (2) drug severity level 1 felony if:40 (A) The controlled substance is not methamphetamine, as defined by41 K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or an analog42 thereof;43 (B) the controlled substance is not a fentanyl-related controlledHB 2678 501 substance; and2 (C) the offender has a prior conviction for unlawful manufacturing of3 a controlled substance under this section, K.S.A. 65-4159, prior to its4 repeal, K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a03, prior to its transfer, or a substantially5 similar offense from another jurisdiction and the substance was not6 methamphetamine, as defined by K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and7 amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, in any such prior conviction;8 and9 (3) drug severity level 1 felony if the controlled substance is10 methamphetamine, as defined by K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1), and11 amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, or is a fentanyl-related12 controlled substance.13 (c) The provisions of K.S.A. 21-5301(d), and amendments thereto,14 shall not apply to a violation of attempting to unlawfully manufacture any15 controlled substance or controlled substance analog pursuant to this16 section.17 (d) For persons arrested and charged under this section, bail shall be18 at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be released upon19 the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802, and20 amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that the21 defendant is not likely to re-offend, the court imposes pretrial supervision,22 or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified drug23 treatment program.24 (e) The sentence of a person who violates this section shall not be25 subject to statutory provisions for suspended sentence, community service26 work or probation.27 (f) The sentence of a person who violates this section, K.S.A. 65-28 4159, prior to its repeal or K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a03, prior to its29 transfer, shall not be reduced because these sections prohibit conduct30 identical to that prohibited by K.S.A. 65-4161 or 65-4163, prior to their31 repeal, K.S.A. 2010 Supp. 21-36a05, prior to its transfer, or K.S.A. 21-32 5705, and amendments thereto.33 (g) The provisions of this section shall not apply to a licensee, as34 such term is defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, that is35 producing medical cannabis or medical cannabis products, as such terms36 are defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, when used for acts37 authorized by the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and38 amendments thereto.39 Sec. 55. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 21-5705 is hereby amended to read as40 follows: 21-5705. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute or41 possess with the intent to distribute any of the following controlled42 substances or controlled substance analogs thereof:43 (1) Opiates, opium or narcotic drugs, or any stimulant designated inHB 2678 511 K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(1), (d)(3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto;2 (2) any depressant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(e), 65-4107(e), 65-3 4109(b) or (c) or 65-4111(b), and amendments thereto;4 (3) any stimulant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(f), 65-4107(d)(2), (d)5 (4), (d)(5) or (f)(2) or 65-4109(e), and amendments thereto;6 (4) any hallucinogenic drug designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(d), 65-7 4107(g) or 65-4109(g), and amendments thereto;8 (5) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(g) or 65-4111(c), (d),9 (e), (f) or (g), and amendments thereto;10 (6) any anabolic steroids as defined in K.S.A. 65-4109(f), and11 amendments thereto; or12 (7) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments13 thereto.14 (b) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute or possess with15 the intent to distribute a controlled substance or a controlled substance16 analog designated in K.S.A. 65-4113, and amendments thereto.17 (c) It shall be unlawful for any person to cultivate any controlled18 substance or controlled substance analog listed in subsection (a).19 (d) (1) Except as provided further, violation of subsection (a) is a:20 (A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was21 less than 3.5 grams;22 (B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at23 least 3.5 grams but less than 100 grams;24 (C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at25 least 100 grams but less than 1 kilogram; and26 (D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was 127 kilogram or more.28 (2) Except as provided further, violation of subsection (a) with29 respect to material containing any quantity of marijuana, or an analog30 thereof, is a:31 (A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was32 less than 25 grams;33 (B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at34 least 25 grams but less than 450 grams;35 (C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at36 least 450 grams but less than 30 kilograms; and37 (D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was 3038 kilograms or more.39 (3) Except as provided further, violation of subsection (a) with40 respect to material containing any quantity of a fentanyl-related controlled41 substance, heroin as defined by K.S.A. 65-4105(c)(12), and amendments42 thereto, or methamphetamine as defined by K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(3) or (f)(1),43 and amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, is a:HB 2678 521 (A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the quantity of the material was2 less than 1 gram;3 (B) drug severity level 3 felony if the quantity of the material was at4 least 1 gram but less than 3.5 grams;5 (C) drug severity level 2 felony if the quantity of the material was at6 least 3.5 grams but less than 100 grams; and7 (D) drug severity level 1 felony if the quantity of the material was8 100 grams or more.9 (4) Except as provided further, violation of subsection (a) with10 respect to material containing any quantity of a controlled substance11 designated in K.S.A. 65-4105, 65-4107, 65-4109 or 65-4111, and12 amendments thereto, or an analog thereof, distributed by dosage unit, is a:13 (A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the number of dosage units was14 fewer than 10;15 (B) drug severity level 3 felony if the number of dosage units was at16 least 10 but fewer than 100;17 (C) drug severity level 2 felony if the number of dosage units was at18 least 100 but fewer than 1,000; and19 (D) drug severity level 1 felony if the number of dosage units was20 1,000 or more.21 (5) Violation of subsection (a) with respect to material containing any22 quantity of a fentanyl-related controlled substance, distributed by dosage23 unit, is a:24 (A) Drug severity level 4 felony if the number of dosage units was25 fewer than 10;26 (B) drug severity level 3 felony if the number of dosage units was at27 least 10 but fewer than 50;28 (C) drug severity level 2 felony if the number of dosage units was at29 least 50 but fewer than 250; and30 (D) drug severity level 1 felony if the number of dosage units was31 250 or more.32 (6) For any violation of subsection (a), the severity level of the33 offense shall be increased one level if the controlled substance or34 controlled substance analog was distributed or possessed with the intent to35 distribute on or within 1,000 feet of any school property.36 (7) Violation of subsection (b) is a:37 (A) Class A person misdemeanor, except as provided in subsection38 (d)(7)(B); and39 (B) nondrug severity level 7, person felony if the substance was40 distributed to or possessed with the intent to distribute to a minor.41 (8) Violation of subsection (c) is a:42 (A) Drug severity level 3 felony if the number of plants cultivated43 was more than 4 but fewer than 50;HB 2678 531 (B) drug severity level 2 felony if the number of plants cultivated was2 at least 50 but fewer than 100; and3 (C) drug severity level 1 felony if the number of plants cultivated was4 100 or more.5 (e) In any prosecution under this section, there shall be an inference6 of an intent to distribute if such an inference is supported by the facts and7 such person possesses the following quantities of controlled substances or8 analogs thereof:9 (1) 450 grams or more of marijuana;10 (2) 3.5 grams or more of a fentanyl-related controlled substance,11 heroin or methamphetamine;12 (3) 50 dosage units or more containing any quantity of a fentanyl-13 related controlled substance;14 (4) 100 dosage units or more containing any other controlled15 substance; or16 (5) 100 grams or more of any other controlled substance.17 (f) It shall not be a defense to charges arising under this section that18 the defendant:19 (1) Was acting in an agency relationship on behalf of any other party20 in a transaction involving a controlled substance or controlled substance21 analog;22 (2) did not know the quantity of the controlled substance or23 controlled substance analog; or24 (3) did not know the specific controlled substance or controlled25 substance analog contained in the material that was distributed or26 possessed with the intent to distribute.27 (g) The provisions of (a)(4) shall not apply to a licensee, as such term28 is defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, or any employee or agent29 thereof that is growing, testing, processing, distributing or selling medical30 cannabis or medical cannabis products, as such terms are defined in31 section 2, and amendments thereto, in accordance with the Kansas32 medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.33 (h) As used in this section:34 (1) "Material" means the total amount of any substance, including a35 compound or a mixture, which that contains any quantity of a controlled36 substance or controlled substance analog.37 (2) "Dosage unit" means a controlled substance or controlled38 substance analog distributed or possessed with the intent to distribute as a39 discrete unit, including but not limited to, one pill, one capsule or one40 microdot, and not distributed by weight.41 (A) For steroids, or controlled substances in liquid solution legally42 manufactured for prescription use, or an analog thereof, "dosage unit"43 means the smallest medically approved dosage unit, as determined by theHB 2678 541 label, materials provided by the manufacturer, a prescribing authority,2 licensed health care professional or other qualified health authority.3 (B) For illegally manufactured controlled substances in liquid4 solution, or controlled substances in liquid products not intended for5 ingestion by human beings, or an analog thereof, "dosage unit" means 106 milligrams, including the liquid carrier medium, except as provided in7 subsection (g)(2)(C) subparagraph (C).8 (C) For lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) in liquid form, or an analog9 thereof, a dosage unit is defined as 0.4 milligrams, including the liquid10 medium.11 Sec. 56. K.S.A. 21-5706 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-12 5706. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess any opiates, opium13 or narcotic drugs, or any stimulant designated in K.S.A. 65-4107(d)(1), (d)14 (3) or (f)(1), and amendments thereto, or a controlled substance analog15 thereof.16 (b) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess any of the following17 controlled substances or controlled substance analogs thereof:18 (1) Any depressant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(e), 65-4107(e), 65-19 4109(b) or (c) or 65-4111(b), and amendments thereto;20 (2) any stimulant designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(f), 65-4107(d)(2), (d)21 (4), (d)(5) or (f)(2) or 65-4109(e), and amendments thereto;22 (3) any hallucinogenic drug designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(d), 65-23 4107(g) or 65-4109(g), and amendments thereto;24 (4) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(g) and 65-4111(c),25 (d), (e), (f) or (g), and amendments thereto;26 (5) any anabolic steroids as defined in K.S.A. 65-4109(f), and27 amendments thereto;28 (6) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4113, and amendments29 thereto; or30 (7) any substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments31 thereto.32 (c) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 5 felony.33 (2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(3):34 (A) Violation of subsection (b) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor,35 except as provided in subparagraph (B); and36 (B) violation of subsection (b)(1) through (b)(5) or (b)(7) is a drug37 severity level 5 felony if that person has a prior conviction under such38 subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its repeal, under a substantially39 similar offense from another jurisdiction, or under any city ordinance or40 county resolution for a substantially similar offense if the substance41 involved was 3, 4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), marijuana42 as designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(d), and amendments thereto, or any43 substance designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments thereto, or anHB 2678 551 analog thereof.2 (3) If the substance involved is marijuana, as designated in K.S.A.3 65-4105(d), and amendments thereto, or tetrahydrocannabinols, as4 designated in K.S.A. 65-4105(h), and amendments thereto, violation of5 subsection (b) is a:6 (A) Class B nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in7 subparagraphs (B) and (C);8 (B) class A nonperson misdemeanor if that person has a prior9 conviction under such subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its10 repeal, under a substantially similar offense from another jurisdiction, or11 under any city ordinance or county resolution for a substantially similar12 offense; and13 (C) drug severity level 5 felony if that person has two or more prior14 convictions under such subsection, under K.S.A. 65-4162, prior to its15 repeal, under a substantially similar offense from another jurisdiction, or16 under any city ordinance or county resolution for a substantially similar17 offense.18 (d) It shall be an affirmative defense to prosecution under this section19 arising out of a person's possession of any cannabidiol treatment20 preparation if the person:21 (1) Has a debilitating medical condition, as defined in K.S.A. 202522 Supp. 65-6235, and amendments thereto, or is the parent or guardian of a23 minor child who has such debilitating medical condition;24 (2) is possessing a cannabidiol treatment preparation, as defined in25 K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-6235, and amendments thereto, that is being used to26 treat such debilitating medical condition; and27 (3) has possession of a letter, at all times while the person has28 possession of the cannabidiol treatment preparation, that:29 (A) Shall be shown to a law enforcement officer on such officer's30 request;31 (B) is dated within the preceding 15 months and signed by the32 physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery in Kansas who33 diagnosed the debilitating medical condition;34 (C) is on such physician's letterhead; and35 (D) identifies the person or the person's minor child as such36 physician's patient and identifies the patient's debilitating medical37 conditionIf the substance involved is medical cannabis or a medical38 cannabis product, as such terms are defined in section 2, and amendments39 thereto, the provisions of subsection (b) shall not apply to any person who40 has been issued a valid identification card pursuant to section 9, and41 amendments thereto, and whose possession is authorized by the Kansas42 medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.43 (e) It shall not be a defense to charges arising under this section thatHB 2678 561 the defendant was acting in an agency relationship on behalf of any other2 party in a transaction involving a controlled substance or controlled3 substance analog.4 Sec. 57. K.S.A. 21-5707 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-5 5707. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly or intentionally6 use any communication facility:7 (1) In committing, causing, or facilitating the commission of any8 felony under K.S.A. 21-5703, 21-5705 or 21-5706, and amendments9 thereto; or10 (2) in any attempt to commit, any conspiracy to commit, or any11 criminal solicitation of any felony under K.S.A. 21-5703, 21-5705 or 21-12 5706, and amendments thereto. Each separate use of a communication13 facility may be charged as a separate offense under this subsection.14 (b) Violation of subsection (a) is a nondrug severity level 8,15 nonperson felony.16 (c) The provisions of this section shall not apply to any person using17 communication facilities for activities authorized by the Kansas medical18 cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.19 (d) As used in this section, "communication facility" means any and20 all public and private instrumentalities used or useful in the transmission21 of writing, signs, signals, pictures or sounds of all kinds and includes22 telephone, wire, radio, computer, computer networks, beepers, pagers and23 all other means of communication.24 Sec. 58. K.S.A. 21-5709 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-25 5709. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess ephedrine,26 pseudoephedrine, red phosphorus, lithium metal, sodium metal, iodine,27 anhydrous ammonia, pressurized ammonia or phenylpropanolamine, or28 their salts, isomers or salts of isomers with an intent to use the product to29 manufacture a controlled substance.30 (b) It shall be unlawful for any person to use or possess with intent to31 use any drug paraphernalia to:32 (1) Manufacture, cultivate, plant, propagate, harvest, test, analyze or33 distribute a controlled substance; or34 (2) store, contain, conceal, inject, ingest, inhale or otherwise35 introduce a controlled substance into the human body.36 (c) It shall be unlawful for any person to use or possess with intent to37 use anhydrous ammonia or pressurized ammonia in a container not38 approved for that chemical by the Kansas department of agriculture.39 (d) It shall be unlawful for any person to purchase, receive or40 otherwise acquire at retail any compound, mixture or preparation41 containing more than 3.6 grams of pseudoephedrine base or ephedrine42 base in any single transaction or any compound, mixture or preparation43 containing more than nine grams of pseudoephedrine base or ephedrineHB 2678 571 base within any 30-day period.2 (e) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 3 felony;3 (2) violation of subsection (b)(1) is a:4 (A) Drug severity level 5 felony, except as provided in subsection (e)5 (2)(B); and6 (B) class B nonperson misdemeanor if the drug paraphernalia was7 used to cultivate fewer than five marijuana plants;8 (3) violation of subsection (b)(2) is a class B nonperson9 misdemeanor;10 (4) violation of subsection (c) is a drug severity level 5 felony; and11 (5) violation of subsection (d) is a class A nonperson misdemeanor.12 (f) For persons arrested and charged under subsection (a) or (c), bail13 shall be at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be14 released upon the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802,15 and amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that16 the defendant is not likely to reoffend, the court imposes pretrial17 supervision or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified18 drug treatment program.19 (g) The provisions of subsection (b) shall not apply to any person20 who has been issued a valid identification card pursuant to section 9, and21 amendments thereto, and whose possession of such equipment or material22 is used solely to produce or for the administration of medical cannabis or23 medical cannabis products, as such terms are defined in section 2, and24 amendments thereto, in a manner authorized by the Kansas medical25 cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.26 Sec. 59. K.S.A. 21-5710 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-27 5710. (a) It shall be unlawful for any person to advertise, market, label,28 distribute or possess with the intent to distribute:29 (1) Any product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, red30 phosphorus, lithium metal, sodium metal, iodine, anhydrous ammonia,31 pressurized ammonia or phenylpropanolamine or their salts, isomers or32 salts of isomers if the person knows or reasonably should know that the33 purchaser will use the product to manufacture a controlled substance or34 controlled substance analog; or35 (2) any product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine or36 phenylpropanolamine, or their salts, isomers or salts of isomers for37 indication of stimulation, mental alertness, weight loss, appetite control,38 energy or other indications not approved pursuant to the pertinent federal39 over-the-counter drug final monograph or tentative final monograph or40 approved new drug application.41 (b) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with the42 intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug43 paraphernalia, knowing or under circumstances where one reasonablyHB 2678 581 should know that it will be used to manufacture or distribute a controlled2 substance or controlled substance analog in violation of K.S.A. 21-57013 through 21-5717, and amendments thereto.4 (c) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with5 intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug6 paraphernalia, knowing or under circumstances where one reasonably7 should know, that it will be used as such in violation of K.S.A. 21-57018 through 21-5717, and amendments thereto, except subsection (b) of K.S.A.9 21-5706(b), and amendments thereto.10 (d) It shall be unlawful for any person to distribute, possess with11 intent to distribute or manufacture with intent to distribute any drug12 paraphernalia, knowing, or under circumstances where one reasonably13 should know, that it will be used as such in violation of subsection (b) of14 K.S.A. 21-5706(b), and amendments thereto.15 (e) (1) Violation of subsection (a) is a drug severity level 3 felony;16 (2) violation of subsection (b) is a:17 (A) Drug severity level 5 felony, except as provided in subsection (e)18 (2)(B) subparagraph (B); and19 (B) drug severity level 4 felony if the trier of fact makes a finding that20 the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia to be distributed to a21 minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school property;22 (3) violation of subsection (c) is a:23 (A) Nondrug severity level 9, nonperson felony, except as provided in24 subsection (e)(3)(B) subparagraph (B); and25 (B) drug severity level 5 felony if the trier of fact makes a finding that26 the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia to be distributed to a27 minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school property; and28 (4) violation of subsection (d) is a:29 (A) Class A nonperson misdemeanor, except as provided in30 subsection (e)(4)(B) subparagraph (B); and31 (B) nondrug severity level 9, nonperson felony if the trier of fact32 makes a finding that the offender distributed or caused drug paraphernalia33 to be distributed to a minor or on or within 1,000 feet of any school34 property.35 (f) For persons arrested and charged under subsection (a), bail shall36 be at least $50,000 cash or surety, and such person shall not be released37 upon the person's own recognizance pursuant to K.S.A. 22-2802, and38 amendments thereto, unless the court determines, on the record, that the39 defendant is not likely to re-offend, the court imposes pretrial supervision40 or the defendant agrees to participate in a licensed or certified drug41 treatment program.42 (g) The provisions of subsection (c) shall not apply to any licensee, as43 such term is defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, whoseHB 2678 591 distribution or manufacture is used solely to distribute or produce medical2 cannabis or medical cannabis products, as such terms are defined in3 section 2, and amendments thereto, in a manner authorized by the Kansas4 medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.5 (h) As used in this section, "or under circumstances where one6 reasonably should know" that an item will be used in violation of this7 section, shall include, but not be limited to, the following:8 (1) Actual knowledge from prior experience or statements by9 customers;10 (2) inappropriate or impractical design for alleged legitimate use;11 (3) receipt of packaging material, advertising information or other12 manufacturer supplied information regarding the item's use as drug13 paraphernalia; or14 (4) receipt of a written warning from a law enforcement or15 prosecutorial agency having jurisdiction that the item has been previously16 determined to have been designed specifically for use as drug17 paraphernalia.18 Sec. 60. K.S.A. 21-6109 is hereby amended to read as follows: 21-19 6109. As used in K.S.A. 21-6109 through 21-6116, and amendments20 thereto:21 (a) "Access point" means the area within a ten foot radius outside of22 any doorway, open window or air intake leading into a building or facility23 that is not exempted pursuant to K.S.A. 21-6110(d), and amendments24 thereto.25 (b) "Bar" means any indoor area that is operated and licensed for the26 sale and service of alcoholic beverages, including alcoholic liquor as27 defined in K.S.A. 41-102, and amendments thereto, or cereal malt28 beverages as defined in K.S.A. 41-2701, and amendments thereto, for on-29 premises consumption.30 (c) "Cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, and31 amendments thereto.32 (d) "Electronic cigarette" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 79-33 3301, and amendments thereto.34 (e) "Employee" means any person who is employed by an employer35 in consideration for direct or indirect monetary wages or profit and any36 person who volunteers their services for a nonprofit entity.37 (d)(f) "Employer" means any person, partnership, corporation,38 association or organization, including municipal or nonprofit entities, that39 employs one or more individual persons.40 (e)(g) "Enclosed area" means all space between a floor and ceiling41 that is enclosed on all sides by solid walls, windows or doorways that42 extend from the floor to the ceiling, including all space therein screened by43 partitions that do not extend to the ceiling or are not solid or similarHB 2678 601 structures. For purposes of this section, the following shall not be2 considered an "enclosed area": (1) Rooms or areas, enclosed by walls,3 windows or doorways, having neither a ceiling nor a roof and that are4 completely open to the elements and weather at all times; and (2) rooms or5 areas, enclosed by walls, fences, windows or doorways and a roof or6 ceiling, having openings that are permanently open to the elements and7 weather and that comprise an area that is at least 30% of the total8 perimeter wall area of such room or area.9 (f)(h) "Food service establishment" means any place in which food is10 served or is prepared for sale or service on the premises. Such term shall11 include, but not be limited to, fixed or mobile restaurants, coffee shops,12 cafeterias, short-order cafes, luncheonettes, grills, tea rooms, sandwich13 shops, soda fountains, taverns, private clubs, roadside kitchens,14 commissaries and any other private, public or nonprofit organization or15 institution routinely serving food and any other eating or drinking16 establishment or operation where food is served or provided for the public17 with or without charge.18 (g)(i) "Gaming floor" means the area of a lottery gaming facility or19 racetrack gaming facility, as those terms are defined in K.S.A. 74-8702,20 and amendments thereto, where patrons engage in Class III gaming. The21 gaming floor shall not include any areas used for accounting, maintenance,22 surveillance, security, administrative offices, storage, cash or cash23 counting, records, food service, lodging or entertainment, except that the24 gaming floor may include a bar where alcoholic beverages are served so25 long as the bar is located entirely within the area where Class III gaming is26 conducted.27 (h)(j) "Medical care facility" means a physician's office, general28 hospital, special hospital, ambulatory surgery center or recuperation center,29 as defined by K.S.A. 65-425, and amendments thereto, and any psychiatric30 hospital licensed under K.S.A. 39-2001 et seq., and amendments thereto.31 (i)(k) "Outdoor recreational facility" means a hunting, fishing,32 shooting or golf club, business or enterprise operated primarily for the33 benefit of its owners, members and their guests and not normally open to34 the general public.35 (j)(l) "Place of employment" means any enclosed area under the36 control of a public or private employer, including, but not limited to, work37 areas, auditoriums, elevators, private offices, employee lounges and38 restrooms, conference and meeting rooms, classrooms, employee39 cafeterias, stairwells and hallways, that is used by employees during the40 course of employment. For purposes of this section, a private residence41 shall not be considered a "place of employment" unless such residence is42 used as a day care home, as defined in K.S.A. 65-530, and amendments43 thereto.HB 2678 611 (k)(m) "Private club" means an outdoor recreational facility operated2 primarily for the use of its owners, members and their guests that in its3 ordinary course of business is not open to the general public for which use4 of its facilities has substantial dues or membership fee requirements for its5 members.6 (l)(n) "Public building" means any building owned or operated by: (1)7 The state, including any branch, department, agency, bureau, commission,8 authority or other instrumentality thereof; (2) any county, city, township,9 other political subdivision, including any commission, authority, agency or10 instrumentality thereof; or (3) any other separate corporate instrumentality11 or unit of the state or any municipality.12 (m)(o) "Public meeting" means any meeting open to the public13 pursuant to K.S.A. 75-4317 et seq., and amendments thereto, or any other14 law of this state.15 (n)(p) "Public place" means any enclosed areas open to the public or16 used by the general public including, but not limited to: Banks, bars, food17 service establishments, retail service establishments, retail stores, public18 means of mass transportation, passenger elevators, health care institutions19 or any other place where health care services are provided to the public,20 medical care facilities, educational facilities, libraries, courtrooms, public21 buildings, restrooms, grocery stores, school buses, museums, theaters,22 auditoriums, arenas and recreational facilities. For purposes of this section,23 a private residence shall not be considered a "public place" unless such24 residence is used as a day care home, as defined in K.S.A. 65-530, and25 amendments thereto.26 (o)(q) "Smoking" means possession of a lighted cigarette, cigar, pipe27 or the use of an electronic cigarette, or burning tobacco or cannabis in any28 other form or device designed for the use of tobacco or cannabis,29 including for the consumption of a medical cannabis product, as defined30 in section 2, and amendments thereto.31 (p)(r) "Tobacco shop" means any indoor area operated primarily for32 the retail sale of tobacco, tobacco products or smoking devices or33 accessories, and that derives not less than 65% of its gross receipts from34 the sale of tobacco.35 (q)(s) "Substantial dues or membership fee requirements" means36 initiation costs, dues or fees proportional to the cost of membership in37 similarly-situated outdoor recreational facilities that are not considered38 nominal and implemented to otherwise avoid or evade restrictions of a39 statewide ban on smoking.40 Sec. 61. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 21-6607 is hereby amended to read as41 follows: 21-6607. (a) Except as required by subsection (c), nothing in this42 section shall be construed to limit the authority of the court to impose or43 modify any general or specific conditions of probation, suspension ofHB 2678 621 sentence or assignment to a community correctional services program. The2 court services officer or community correctional services officer may3 recommend, and the court may order, the imposition of any conditions of4 probation, suspension of sentence or assignment to a community5 correctional services program. For crimes committed on or after July 1,6 1993, in presumptive nonprison cases, the court services officer or7 community correctional services officer may recommend, and the court8 may order, the imposition of any conditions of probation or assignment to9 a community correctional services program. The court may at any time10 order the modification of such conditions, after notice to the court services11 officer or community correctional services officer and an opportunity for12 such officer to be heard thereon. The court shall cause a copy of any such13 order to be delivered to the court services officer and the probationer or to14 the community correctional services officer and the community corrections15 participant, as the case may be. The provisions of K.S.A. 75-5291, and16 amendments thereto, shall be applicable to any assignment to a community17 correctional services program pursuant to this section.18 (b) Except as provided in subsection (d), the court may impose any19 conditions of probation, suspension of sentence or assignment to a20 community correctional services program that the court deems proper,21 including, but not limited to, requiring that the defendant:22 (1) Obey all laws and ordinances and report any law enforcement23 contact to the defendant's supervision officer within 24 hours after such24 contact;25 (2) not engage in physical violence or threats of violence of any kind26 and, if the defendant is being supervised for conviction of a felony, not27 purchase or possess a dangerous weapon, including a firearm, while on28 supervision;29 (3) report to the defendant's supervision officer as directed and be30 truthful in all matters;31 (4) remain within the state of Kansas or other specified areas as32 defined by the defendant's supervision officer;33 (5) reside at the defendant's approved residence unless the defendant34 receives permission from the defendant's supervision officer to relocate35 and notify the defendant's supervision officer within 24 hours after any36 emergency changes in residence or contact information;37 (6) not possess, use or distribute any controlled substances except38 those prescribed by a licensed medical professional;39 (7) not possess or consume any form of alcohol or intoxicating40 substance or enter any establishment where alcohol is sold or consumed as41 the primary business;42 (8) submit to any form of alcohol or substance use testing directed by43 the defendant's supervision officer and not alter or tamper with theHB 2678 631 specimen or test;2 (9) participate in assessment, treatment, programming and other3 directives of the court or the defendant's supervision officer;4 (10) be subject to searches of the defendant's person, effects, vehicle,5 residence and property by a court services officer, community correctional6 services officer or any other law enforcement officer based on reasonable7 suspicion that the defendant violated conditions of probation or engaged in8 criminal activity; or9 (11) refrain from contacting victims unless authorized by the court to10 contact a victim as part of rehabilitative or therapeutic purposes.11 (c) In addition to any conditions of probation, suspension of sentence12 or assignment to a community correctional services program ordered13 pursuant to subsection (b), the court shall order the defendant to:14 (1) Make reparation or restitution to the aggrieved party for the15 damage or loss caused by the defendant's crime in accordance with K.S.A.16 21-6604(b), and amendments thereto;17 (2) (A) pay a correctional supervision fee of $60 if the person was18 convicted of a misdemeanor or a fee of $120 if the person was convicted19 of a felony. In any case the amount of the correctional supervision fee20 specified by this paragraph may be reduced or waived by the judge if the21 person is unable to pay that amount;22 (B) the correctional supervision fee imposed by this paragraph shall23 be charged and collected by the district court. The clerk of the district24 court shall remit all revenues received under this paragraph from25 correctional supervision fees to the state treasurer in accordance with the26 provisions of K.S.A. 75-4215, and amendments thereto. Upon receipt of27 each such remittance, the state treasurer shall deposit the entire amount in28 the state treasury to the credit of the state general fund, a sum equal to29 41.67% of such remittance, and to the correctional supervision fund, a sum30 equal to 58.33% of such remittance;31 (C) this paragraph shall apply to persons placed on felony or32 misdemeanor probation or released on misdemeanor parole to reside in33 Kansas and supervised by Kansas court services officers under the34 interstate compact for offender supervision; and35 (D) this paragraph shall not apply to persons placed on probation or36 released on parole to reside in Kansas under the uniform act for out-of-37 state parolee supervision; and38 (3) reimburse the state general fund for all or a part of the39 expenditures by the state board of indigents' defense services to provide40 counsel and other defense services to the defendant. In determining the41 amount and method of payment of such sum, the court shall take account42 of the financial resources of the defendant and the nature of the burden that43 payment of such sum will impose. A defendant who has been required toHB 2678 641 pay such sum and who is not willfully in default in the payment thereof2 may at any time petition the court which sentenced the defendant to waive3 payment of such sum or of any unpaid portion thereof. If it appears to the4 satisfaction of the court that payment of the amount due will impose5 manifest hardship on the defendant or the defendant's immediate family,6 the court may waive payment of all or part of the amount due or modify7 the method of payment. The amount of attorney fees to be included in the8 court order for reimbursement shall be the amount claimed by appointed9 counsel on the payment voucher for indigents' defense services or the10 amount prescribed by the board of indigents' defense services11 reimbursement tables as provided in K.S.A. 22-4522, and amendments12 thereto, whichever is less.13 (d) The office of judicial administration and the department of14 corrections shall collaborate to develop documentation related to15 conditions of supervision.16 (e) For any defendant who has been issued a valid identification card17 pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto, the court shall not order18 any condition that prohibits such defendant from purchasing, possessing19 or consuming medical cannabis or medical cannabis products, as such20 terms are defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, in accordance21 with the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments22 thereto.23 (f) Any law enforcement officer who conducts a search pursuant to24 subsection (b)(10) shall submit a written report to the appropriate court25 services officer or community correctional services officer not later than26 the close of business the next day after such search is conducted. The27 written report shall include the facts leading to such search, the scope of28 such search and any findings resulting from such search.29 (f)(g) There is hereby established in the state treasury the correctional30 supervision fund. All moneys credited to the correctional supervision fund31 shall be used for: (1) The implementation of and training for use of a32 statewide, mandatory, standardized risk assessment tool or instrument as33 specified by the Kansas sentencing commission, pursuant to K.S.A. 75-34 5291, and amendments thereto; (2) the implementation of and training for35 use of a statewide, mandatory, standardized risk assessment tool or36 instrument for juveniles adjudicated to be juvenile offenders; and (3)37 evidence-based adult and juvenile offender supervision programs by38 judicial branch personnel. If all expenditures for the program have been39 paid and moneys remain in the correctional supervision fund for a fiscal40 year, remaining moneys may be expended from the correctional41 supervision fund to support adult and juvenile offender supervision by42 court services officers. All expenditures from the correctional supervision43 fund shall be made in accordance with appropriation acts upon warrants ofHB 2678 651 the director of accounts and reports issued pursuant to vouchers approved2 by the chief justice of the Kansas supreme court or by a person or persons3 designated by the chief justice.4 Sec. 62. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 22-3717 is hereby amended to read as5 follows: 22-3717. (a) Except as otherwise provided by this section; K.S.A.6 1993 Supp. 21-4628, prior to its repeal; K.S.A. 21-4624, 21-4635 through7 21-4638 and 21-4642, prior to their repeal; K.S.A. 21-6617, 21-6620, 21-8 6623, 21-6624, 21-6625 and 21-6626, and amendments thereto; and9 K.S.A. 8-1567, and amendments thereto; an inmate, including an inmate10 sentenced pursuant to K.S.A. 21-4618, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-11 6707, and amendments thereto, shall be eligible for parole after serving the12 entire minimum sentence imposed by the court, less good time credits.13 (b) (1) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment for life without the14 possibility of parole pursuant to K.S.A. 21-6617, and amendments thereto,15 shall not be eligible for parole.16 (2) Except as provided by K.S.A. 21-4635 through 21-4638, prior to17 their repeal, and K.S.A. 21-6620, 21-6623, 21-6624 and 21-6625, and18 amendments thereto, an inmate sentenced to imprisonment for the crime19 of: (A) Capital murder committed on or after July 1, 1994, shall be eligible20 for parole after serving 25 years of confinement, without deduction of any21 good time credits; (B) murder in the first degree based upon a finding of22 premeditated murder committed on or after July 1, 1994, but prior to July23 1, 2014, shall be eligible for parole after serving 25 years of confinement,24 without deduction of any good time credits; and (C) murder in the first25 degree as described in K.S.A. 21-5402(a)(2), and amendments thereto,26 committed on or after July 1, 2014, shall be eligible for parole after27 serving 25 years of confinement, without deduction of any good time28 credits.29 (3) Except as provided by subsections (b)(1), (b)(2) and (b)(5),30 K.S.A. 1993 Supp. 21-4628, prior to its repeal, K.S.A. 21-4635 through31 21-4638, prior to their repeal, and K.S.A. 21-6620, 21-6623, 21-6624 and32 21-6625, and amendments thereto, an inmate sentenced to imprisonment33 for an off-grid offense committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July34 1, 1999, shall be eligible for parole after serving 15 years of confinement,35 without deduction of any good time credits and an inmate sentenced to36 imprisonment for an off-grid offense committed on or after July 1, 1999,37 shall be eligible for parole after serving 20 years of confinement without38 deduction of any good time credits.39 (4) Except as provided by K.S.A. 1993 Supp. 21-4628, prior to its40 repeal, an inmate sentenced for a class A felony committed before July 1,41 1993, including an inmate sentenced pursuant to K.S.A. 21-4618, prior to42 its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6707, and amendments thereto, shall be eligible for43 parole after serving 15 years of confinement, without deduction of anyHB 2678 661 good time credits.2 (5) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment for a violation of K.S.A.3 21-3402(a), prior to its repeal, committed on or after July 1, 1996, but4 prior to July 1, 1999, shall be eligible for parole after serving 10 years of5 confinement without deduction of any good time credits.6 (6) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment pursuant to K.S.A. 21-7 4643, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6627, and amendments thereto,8 committed on or after July 1, 2006, shall be eligible for parole after9 serving the mandatory term of imprisonment without deduction of any10 good time credits.11 (c) (1) Except as provided in subsection (e), if an inmate is sentenced12 to imprisonment for more than one crime and the sentences run13 consecutively, the inmate shall be eligible for parole after serving the total14 of:15 (A) The aggregate minimum sentences, as determined pursuant to16 K.S.A. 21-4608, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6606, and amendments17 thereto, less good time credits for those crimes which are not class A18 felonies; and19 (B) an additional 15 years, without deduction of good time credits,20 for each crime which is a class A felony.21 (2) If an inmate is sentenced to imprisonment pursuant to K.S.A. 21-22 4643, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6627, and amendments thereto, for23 crimes committed on or after July 1, 2006, the inmate shall be eligible for24 parole after serving the mandatory term of imprisonment.25 (d) (1) Persons sentenced for crimes, other than off-grid crimes,26 committed on or after July 1, 1993, or persons subject to subparagraph27 (G), will not be eligible for parole, but will be released to a mandatory28 period of postrelease supervision upon completion of the prison portion of29 their sentence as follows:30 (A) Except as provided in subparagraphs (D) and (E), persons31 sentenced for nondrug severity levels 1 through 4 crimes, drug severity32 levels 1 and 2 crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July33 1, 2012, and drug severity levels 1, 2 and 3 crimes committed on or after34 July 1, 2012, must serve 36 months on postrelease supervision.35 (B) Except as provided in subparagraphs (D) and (E), persons36 sentenced for nondrug severity levels 5 and 6 crimes, drug severity level 337 crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July 1, 2012, and38 drug severity level 4 crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012, must serve39 24 months on postrelease supervision.40 (C) Except as provided in subparagraphs (D) and (E), persons41 sentenced for nondrug severity levels 7 through 10 crimes, drug severity42 level 4 crimes committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July 1,43 2012, and drug severity level 5 crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012,HB 2678 671 must serve 12 months on postrelease supervision.2 (D) Persons sentenced to a term of imprisonment that includes a3 sentence for a sexually violent crime as defined in K.S.A. 22-3717, and4 amendments thereto, committed on or after July 1, 1993, but prior to July5 1, 2006, a sexually motivated crime in which the offender has been6 ordered to register pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3717(d)(1)(D)(vii), and7 amendments thereto, electronic solicitation, K.S.A. 21-3523, prior to its8 repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5509, and amendments thereto, or unlawful sexual9 relations, K.S.A. 21-3520, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5512, and10 amendments thereto, shall serve the period of postrelease supervision as11 provided in subsections (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B) or (d)(1)(C), plus the amount12 of good time and program credit earned and retained pursuant to K.S.A.13 21-4722, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6821, and amendments thereto,14 on postrelease supervision.15 (i) If the sentencing judge finds substantial and compelling reasons to16 impose a departure based upon a finding that the current crime of17 conviction was sexually motivated, departure may be imposed to extend18 the postrelease supervision to a period of up to 60 months.19 (ii) If the sentencing judge departs from the presumptive postrelease20 supervision period, the judge shall state on the record at the time of21 sentencing the substantial and compelling reasons for the departure.22 Departures in this section are subject to appeal pursuant to K.S.A. 21-23 4721, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6820, and amendments thereto.24 (iii) In determining whether substantial and compelling reasons exist,25 the court shall consider:26 (a) Written briefs or oral arguments submitted by either the defendant27 or the state;28 (b) any evidence received during the proceeding;29 (c) the presentence report, the victim's impact statement and any30 psychological evaluation as ordered by the court pursuant to K.S.A. 21-31 4714(e), prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6813(e), and amendments thereto;32 and33 (d) any other evidence the court finds trustworthy and reliable.34 (iv) The sentencing judge may order that a psychological evaluation35 be prepared and the recommended programming be completed by the36 offender. The department of corrections or the prisoner review board shall37 ensure that court ordered sex offender treatment be carried out.38 (v) In carrying out the provisions of subsection (d)(1)(D), the court39 shall refer to K.S.A. 21-4718, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6817, and40 amendments thereto.41 (vi) Upon petition and payment of any restitution ordered pursuant to42 K.S.A. 21-6604, and amendments thereto, the prisoner review board may43 provide for early discharge from the postrelease supervision periodHB 2678 681 imposed pursuant to subsection (d)(1)(D)(i) upon completion of court2 ordered programs and completion of the presumptive postrelease3 supervision period, as determined by the crime of conviction, pursuant to4 subsection (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B) or (d)(1)(C). Early discharge from5 postrelease supervision is at the discretion of the board.6 (vii) Persons convicted of crimes deemed sexually violent or sexually7 motivated shall be registered according to the offender registration act,8 K.S.A. 22-4901 through 22-4910, and amendments thereto.9 (viii) Persons convicted of K.S.A. 21-3510 or 21-3511, prior to their10 repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5508, and amendments thereto, shall be required to11 participate in a treatment program for sex offenders during the postrelease12 supervision period.13 (E) The period of postrelease supervision provided in subparagraphs14 (A) and (B) may be reduced by up to 12 months and the period of15 postrelease supervision provided in subparagraph (C) may be reduced by16 up to six months based on the offender's compliance with conditions of17 supervision and overall performance while on postrelease supervision. The18 reduction in the supervision period shall be on an earned basis pursuant to19 rules and regulations adopted by the secretary of corrections.20 (F) In cases where sentences for crimes from more than one severity21 level have been imposed, the offender shall serve the longest period of22 postrelease supervision as provided by this section available for any crime23 upon which sentence was imposed irrespective of the severity level of the24 crime. Supervision periods will not aggregate.25 (G) (i) Except as provided in subsection (v), persons sentenced to26 imprisonment for a sexually violent crime committed on or after July 1,27 2006, when the offender was 18 years of age or older, and who are28 released from prison, shall be released to a mandatory period of29 postrelease supervision for the duration of the person's natural life.30 (ii) Persons sentenced to imprisonment for a sexually violent crime31 committed on or after the effective date of this act, when the offender was32 under 18 years of age, and who are released from prison, shall be released33 to a mandatory period of postrelease supervision for 60 months, plus the34 amount of good time and program credit earned and retained pursuant to35 K.S.A. 21-4722, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6821, and amendments36 thereto.37 (2) Persons serving a period of postrelease supervision pursuant to38 subsections (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B) or (d)(1)(C) may petition the prisoner39 review board for early discharge. Upon payment of restitution, the prisoner40 review board may provide for early discharge.41 (3) Persons serving a period of incarceration for a supervision42 violation shall not have the period of postrelease supervision modified43 until such person is released and returned to postrelease supervision.HB 2678 691 (4) Offenders whose crime of conviction was committed on or after2 July 1, 2013, and whose probation, assignment to a community3 correctional services program, suspension of sentence or nonprison4 sanction is revoked pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3716(c), and amendments5 thereto, or whose underlying prison term expires while serving a sanction6 pursuant to K.S.A. 22-3716(c), and amendments thereto, shall serve a7 period of postrelease supervision upon the completion of the underlying8 prison term.9 (5) As used in this subsection, "sexually violent crime" means:10 (A) Rape, K.S.A. 21-3502, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5503, and11 amendments thereto;12 (B) indecent liberties with a child, K.S.A. 21-3503, prior to its repeal,13 or K.S.A. 21-5506(a), and amendments thereto;14 (C) aggravated indecent liberties with a child, K.S.A. 21-3504, prior15 to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5506(b), and amendments thereto;16 (D) criminal sodomy, K.S.A. 21-3505(a)(2) and (a)(3), prior to its17 repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5504(a)(3) and (a)(4), and amendments thereto;18 (E) aggravated criminal sodomy, K.S.A. 21-3506, prior to its repeal,19 or K.S.A. 21-5504(b), and amendments thereto;20 (F) indecent solicitation of a child, K.S.A. 21-3510, prior to its repeal,21 or K.S.A. 21-5508(a), and amendments thereto;22 (G) aggravated indecent solicitation of a child, K.S.A. 21-3511, prior23 to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5508(b), and amendments thereto;24 (H) sexual exploitation of a child, K.S.A. 21-3516, prior to its repeal,25 or K.S.A. 21-5510, and amendments thereto;26 (I) aggravated sexual battery, K.S.A. 21-3518, prior to its repeal, or27 K.S.A. 21-5505(b), and amendments thereto;28 (J) aggravated incest, K.S.A. 21-3603, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A.29 21-5604(b), and amendments thereto;30 (K) aggravated human trafficking, as defined in K.S.A. 21-3447,31 prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5426(b), and amendments thereto, if32 committed in whole or in part for the purpose of the sexual gratification of33 the defendant or another;34 (L) internet trading in child pornography, as defined in K.S.A. 21-35 5514(a), and amendments thereto;36 (M) aggravated internet trading in child pornography, as defined in37 K.S.A. 21-5514(b), and amendments thereto;38 (N) commercial sexual exploitation of a child, as defined in K.S.A.39 21-6422, and amendments thereto; or40 (O) an attempt, conspiracy or criminal solicitation, as defined in41 K.S.A. 21-3301, 21-3302 or 21-3303, prior to their repeal, or K.S.A. 21-42 5301, 21-5302 or 21-5303, and amendments thereto, of a sexually violent43 crime as defined in this section.HB 2678 701 (6) As used in this subsection, "sexually motivated" means that one of2 the purposes for which the defendant committed the crime was for the3 purpose of the defendant's sexual gratification.4 (e) If an inmate is sentenced to imprisonment for a crime committed5 while on parole or conditional release, the inmate shall be eligible for6 parole as provided by subsection (c), except that the prisoner review board7 may postpone the inmate's parole eligibility date by assessing a penalty not8 exceeding the period of time which could have been assessed if the9 inmate's parole or conditional release had been violated for reasons other10 than conviction of a crime.11 (f) If a person is sentenced to prison for a crime committed on or after12 July 1, 1993, while on probation, parole, conditional release or in a13 community corrections program, for a crime committed prior to July 1,14 1993, and the person is not eligible for retroactive application of the15 sentencing guidelines and amendments thereto pursuant to K.S.A. 21-16 4724, prior to its repeal, the new sentence shall not be aggregated with the17 old sentence, but shall begin when the person is paroled or reaches the18 conditional release date on the old sentence. If the offender was past the19 offender's conditional release date at the time the new offense was20 committed, the new sentence shall not be aggregated with the old sentence21 but shall begin when the person is ordered released by the prisoner review22 board or reaches the maximum sentence expiration date on the old23 sentence, whichever is earlier. The new sentence shall then be served as24 otherwise provided by law. The period of postrelease supervision shall be25 based on the new sentence, except that those offenders whose old sentence26 is a term of imprisonment for life, imposed pursuant to K.S.A. 1993 Supp.27 21-4628, prior to its repeal, or an indeterminate sentence with a maximum28 term of life imprisonment, for which there is no conditional release or29 maximum sentence expiration date, shall remain on postrelease30 supervision for life or until discharged from supervision by the prisoner31 review board.32 (g) Subject to the provisions of this section, the prisoner review board33 may release on parole those persons confined in institutions who are34 eligible for parole when: (1) The board believes that the inmate should be35 released for hospitalization, deportation or to answer the warrant or other36 process of a court and is of the opinion that there is reasonable probability37 that the inmate can be released without detriment to the community or to38 the inmate; or (2) the secretary of corrections has reported to the board in39 writing that the inmate has satisfactorily completed the programs required40 by any agreement entered under K.S.A. 75-5210a, and amendments41 thereto, or any revision of such agreement, and the board believes that the42 inmate is able and willing to fulfill the obligations of a law abiding citizen43 and is of the opinion that there is reasonable probability that the inmateHB 2678 711 can be released without detriment to the community or to the inmate.2 Parole shall not be granted as an award of clemency and shall not be3 considered a reduction of sentence or a pardon.4 (h) The prisoner review board shall hold a parole hearing at least the5 month prior to the month an inmate will be eligible for parole under6 subsections (a), (b) and (c). At least one month preceding the parole7 hearing, the county or district attorney of the county where the inmate was8 convicted shall give written notice of the time and place of the public9 comment sessions for the inmate to any victim of the inmate's crime who10 is alive and whose address is known to the county or district attorney or, if11 the victim is deceased, to the victim's family if the family's address is12 known to the county or district attorney. Except as otherwise provided,13 failure to notify pursuant to this section shall not be a reason to postpone a14 parole hearing. In the case of any inmate convicted of an off-grid felony or15 a class A felony, the secretary of corrections shall give written notice of the16 time and place of the public comment session for such inmate at least one17 month preceding the public comment session to any victim of such18 inmate's crime or the victim's family pursuant to K.S.A. 74-7338, and19 amendments thereto. If notification is not given to such victim or such20 victim's family in the case of any inmate convicted of an off-grid felony or21 a class A felony, the board shall postpone a decision on parole of the22 inmate to a time at least 30 days after notification is given as provided in23 this section. Nothing in this section shall create a cause of action against24 the state or an employee of the state acting within the scope of the25 employee's employment as a result of the failure to notify pursuant to this26 section. If granted parole, the inmate may be released on parole on the date27 specified by the board, but not earlier than the date the inmate is eligible28 for parole under subsections (a), (b) and (c). At each parole hearing and, if29 parole is not granted, at such intervals thereafter as it determines30 appropriate, the board shall consider: (1) Whether the inmate has31 satisfactorily completed the programs required by any agreement entered32 under K.S.A. 75-5210a, and amendments thereto, or any revision of such33 agreement; and (2) all pertinent information regarding such inmate,34 including, but not limited to, the circumstances of the offense of the35 inmate; the presentence report; the previous social history and criminal36 record of the inmate; the conduct, employment, and attitude of the inmate37 in prison; the reports of such physical and mental examinations as have38 been made, including, but not limited to, risk factors revealed by any risk39 assessment of the inmate; comments of the victim and the victim's family40 including in person comments, contemporaneous comments and41 prerecorded comments made by any technological means; comments of42 the public; official comments; any recommendation by the staff of the43 facility where the inmate is incarcerated; proportionality of the time theHB 2678 721 inmate has served to the sentence a person would receive under the Kansas2 sentencing guidelines for the conduct that resulted in the inmate's3 incarceration; and capacity of state correctional institutions.4 (i) In those cases involving inmates sentenced for a crime committed5 after July 1, 1993, the prisoner review board will review the inmate's6 proposed release plan. The board may schedule a hearing if they desire.7 The board may impose any condition they deem necessary to insure public8 safety, aid in the reintegration of the inmate into the community, or items9 not completed under the agreement entered into under K.S.A. 75-5210a,10 and amendments thereto. The board may not advance or delay an inmate's11 release date. Every inmate while on postrelease supervision shall remain in12 the legal custody of the secretary of corrections and is subject to the orders13 of the secretary.14 (j) (1) Before ordering the parole of any inmate, the prisoner review15 board shall have the inmate appear either in person or via a video16 conferencing format and shall interview the inmate unless impractical17 because of the inmate's physical or mental condition or absence from the18 institution. Every inmate while on parole shall remain in the legal custody19 of the secretary of corrections and is subject to the orders of the secretary.20 Whenever the board formally considers placing an inmate on parole and21 no agreement has been entered into with the inmate under K.S.A. 75-22 5210a, and amendments thereto, the board shall notify the inmate in23 writing of the reasons for not granting parole. If an agreement has been24 entered under K.S.A. 75-5210a, and amendments thereto, and the inmate25 has not satisfactorily completed the programs specified in the agreement,26 or any revision of such agreement, the board shall notify the inmate in27 writing of the specific programs the inmate must satisfactorily complete28 before parole will be granted. If parole is not granted only because of a29 failure to satisfactorily complete such programs, the board shall grant30 parole upon the secretary's certification that the inmate has successfully31 completed such programs. If an agreement has been entered under K.S.A.32 75-5210a, and amendments thereto, and the secretary of corrections has33 reported to the board in writing that the inmate has satisfactorily34 completed the programs required by such agreement, or any revision35 thereof, the board shall not require further program participation.36 However, if the board determines that other pertinent information37 regarding the inmate warrants the inmate's not being released on parole,38 the board shall state in writing the reasons for not granting the parole. If39 parole is denied for an inmate sentenced for a crime other than a class A or40 class B felony or an off-grid felony, the board shall hold another parole41 hearing for the inmate not later than one year after the denial unless the42 board finds that it is not reasonable to expect that parole would be granted43 at a hearing if held in the next three years or during the interim period of aHB 2678 731 deferral. In such case, the board may defer subsequent parole hearings for2 up to three years but any such deferral by the board shall require the board3 to state the basis for its findings. If parole is denied for an inmate4 sentenced for a class A or class B felony or an off-grid felony, the board5 shall hold another parole hearing for the inmate not later than three years6 after the denial unless the board finds that it is not reasonable to expect7 that parole would be granted at a hearing if held in the next 10 years or8 during the interim period of a deferral. In such case, the board may defer9 subsequent parole hearings for up to 10 years, but any such deferral shall10 require the board to state the basis for its findings.11 (2) Inmates sentenced for a class A or class B felony who have not12 had a board hearing in the five years prior to July 1, 2010, shall have such13 inmates' cases reviewed by the board on or before July 1, 2012. Such14 review shall begin with the inmates with the oldest deferral date and15 progress to the most recent. Such review shall be done utilizing existing16 resources unless the board determines that such resources are insufficient.17 If the board determines that such resources are insufficient, then the18 provisions of this paragraph are subject to appropriations therefor.19 (k) (1) Parolees and persons on postrelease supervision shall be20 assigned, upon release, to the appropriate level of supervision pursuant to21 the criteria established by the secretary of corrections.22 (2) Parolees and persons on postrelease supervision are, and shall23 agree in writing to be, subject to searches of the person and the person's24 effects, vehicle, residence and property by a parole officer or a department25 of corrections enforcement, apprehension and investigation officer, at any26 time of the day or night, with or without a search warrant and with or27 without cause. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize28 such officers to conduct arbitrary or capricious searches or searches for the29 sole purpose of harassment.30 (3) Parolees and persons on postrelease supervision are, and shall31 agree in writing to be, subject to searches of the person and the person's32 effects, vehicle, residence and property by any law enforcement officer33 based on reasonable suspicion of the person violating conditions of parole34 or postrelease supervision or reasonable suspicion of criminal activity. Any35 law enforcement officer who conducts such a search shall submit a written36 report to the appropriate parole officer no later than the close of the next37 business day after such search. The written report shall include the facts38 leading to such search, the scope of such search and any findings resulting39 from such search.40 (l) The prisoner review board shall promulgate rules and regulations41 in accordance with K.S.A. 77-415 et seq., and amendments thereto, not42 inconsistent with the law and as it may deem proper or necessary, with43 respect to the conduct of parole hearings, postrelease supervision reviews,HB 2678 741 revocation hearings, orders of restitution, reimbursement of expenditures2 by the state board of indigents' defense services and other conditions to be3 imposed upon parolees or releasees. Whenever an order for parole or4 postrelease supervision is issued it shall recite the conditions thereof.5 (m) Whenever the prisoner review board orders the parole of an6 inmate or establishes conditions for an inmate placed on postrelease7 supervision, the board shall require that the inmate:8 (1) Obey all laws and ordinances and report any law enforcement9 contact to the inmate's supervision officer within 24 hours after such10 contact;11 (2) not engage in physical violence or threats of violence of any kind12 and, if the inmate is being supervised for conviction of a felony, not13 purchase or possess a dangerous weapon, including a firearm, while on14 supervision;15 (3) report to the inmate's supervision officer as directed and be16 truthful in all matters;17 (4) remain within the state of Kansas or other specified areas as18 defined by the defendant's supervision officer;19 (5) reside at the inmate's approved residence unless the defendant20 receives permission from the inmate's supervision officer to relocate and21 notify the inmate's supervision officer within 24 hours after any emergency22 changes in residence or contact information;23 (6) not possess, use or distribute any controlled substances except24 those prescribed by a licensed medical professional;25 (7) not possess or consume any form of alcohol or intoxicating26 substance or enter any establishment where alcohol is sold or consumed as27 the primary business;28 (8) submit to any form of alcohol or substance use testing directed by29 the inmate's supervision officer and not alter or tamper with the specimen30 or test;31 (9) participate in assessment, treatment, programming and other32 directives of the court or the inmate's supervision officer;33 (10) submit to searches of the person and the person's effects, vehicle,34 residence and property by a parole officer or a department of corrections35 enforcement, apprehension and investigation officer, at any time of the day36 or night, with or without a search warrant and with or without cause,37 except that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize such38 officers to conduct arbitrary or capricious searches or searches for the sole39 purpose of harassment;40 (11) submit to searches of the person and the person's effects, vehicle,41 residence and property by any law enforcement officer based on42 reasonable suspicion of the person violating conditions of parole or43 postrelease supervision or reasonable suspicion of criminal activity;HB 2678 751 (12) refrain from contacting victims unless authorized by the board to2 contact a victim as part of rehabilitative or therapeutic purposes;3 (13) pay the administrative fee imposed pursuant to K.S.A. 22-4529,4 and amendments thereto, unless the board finds compelling circumstances5 that would render payment unworkable; and6 (14) unless the board finds compelling circumstances that would7 render a plan of payment unworkable, reimburse the state for all or part of8 the expenditures by the state board of indigents' defense services to9 provide counsel and other defense services to the person. In determining10 the amount and method of payment of such sum, the prisoner review board11 shall take account of the financial resources of the person and the nature of12 the burden that the payment of such sum will impose. Such amount shall13 not exceed the amount claimed by appointed counsel on the payment14 voucher for indigents' defense services or the amount prescribed by the15 board of indigents' defense services reimbursement tables as provided in16 K.S.A. 22-4522, and amendments thereto, whichever is less, minus any17 previous payments for such services.18 (n) Any law enforcement officer who conducts a search pursuant to19 subsection (m)(11) shall submit a written report to the inmate's parole20 officer not later than the close of business the next day after such search is21 conducted. The written report shall include the facts leading to such22 search, the scope of such search and any findings resulting from such23 search.24 (o) If the court that sentenced an inmate specified at the time of25 sentencing the amount and the recipient of any restitution ordered as a26 condition of parole or postrelease supervision, the prisoner review board27 shall order as a condition of parole or postrelease supervision that the28 inmate pay restitution in the amount and manner provided in the journal29 entry unless the board finds compelling circumstances that would render a30 plan of restitution unworkable.31 (p) Whenever the prisoner review board grants the parole of an32 inmate, the board, within 14 days of the date of the decision to grant33 parole, shall give written notice of the decision to the county or district34 attorney of the county where the inmate was sentenced.35 (q) When an inmate is to be released on postrelease supervision, the36 secretary, within 30 days prior to release, shall provide the county or37 district attorney of the county where the inmate was sentenced written38 notice of the release date.39 (r) Inmates shall be released on postrelease supervision upon the40 termination of the prison portion of their sentence. Time served while on41 postrelease supervision will vest.42 (s) An inmate who is allocated regular good time credits as provided43 in K.S.A. 22-3725, and amendments thereto, may receive meritoriousHB 2678 761 good time credits in increments of not more than 90 days per meritorious2 act. These credits may be awarded by the secretary of corrections when an3 inmate has acted in a heroic or outstanding manner in coming to the4 assistance of another person in a life-threatening situation, preventing5 injury or death to a person, preventing the destruction of property or taking6 actions that result in a financial savings to the state.7 (t) The provisions of subsections (d)(1)(A), (d)(1)(B), (d)(1)(C) and8 (d)(1)(E) shall be applied retroactively as provided in subsection (u).9 (u) For offenders sentenced prior to July 1, 2014, who are eligible for10 modification of their postrelease supervision obligation, the department of11 corrections shall modify the period of postrelease supervision as provided12 for by this section:13 (1) On or before September 1, 2013, for offenders convicted of:14 (A) Severity levels 9 and 10 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid15 for nondrug crimes;16 (B) severity level 4 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug17 crimes committed prior to July 1, 2012; and18 (C) severity level 5 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug19 crimes committed on and after July 1, 2012;20 (2) on or before November 1, 2013, for offenders convicted of:21 (A) Severity levels 6, 7 and 8 crimes on the sentencing guidelines22 grid for nondrug crimes;23 (B) level 3 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug crimes24 committed prior to July 1, 2012; and25 (C) level 4 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug crimes26 committed on or after July 1, 2012; and27 (3) on or before January 1, 2014, for offenders convicted of:28 (A) Severity levels 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 crimes on the sentencing29 guidelines grid for nondrug crimes;30 (B) severity levels 1 and 2 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid31 for drug crimes committed at any time; and32 (C) severity level 3 crimes on the sentencing guidelines grid for drug33 crimes committed on or after July 1, 2012.34 (v) An inmate sentenced to imprisonment pursuant to K.S.A. 21-35 4643, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-6627, and amendments thereto, for36 crimes committed on or after July 1, 2006, shall be placed on parole for37 life and shall not be discharged from supervision by the prisoner review38 board. When the board orders the parole of an inmate pursuant to this39 subsection, the board shall order as a condition of parole that the inmate be40 electronically monitored for the duration of the inmate's natural life.41 (w) Whenever the prisoner review board orders a person to be42 electronically monitored pursuant to this section, or the court orders a43 person to be electronically monitored pursuant to K.S.A. 21-6604(r), andHB 2678 771 amendments thereto, the board shall order the person to reimburse the state2 for all or part of the cost of such monitoring. In determining the amount3 and method of payment of such sum, the board shall take account of the4 financial resources of the person and the nature of the burden that the5 payment of such sum will impose.6 (x) (1) On and after July 1, 2012, for any inmate who is a sex7 offender, as defined in K.S.A. 22-4902, and amendments thereto,8 whenever the prisoner review board orders the parole of such inmate or9 establishes conditions for such inmate placed on postrelease supervision,10 such inmate shall agree in writing to not possess pornographic materials.11 (A) As used in this subsection, "pornographic materials" means any12 obscene material or performance depicting sexual conduct, sexual contact13 or a sexual performance; and any visual depiction of sexually explicit14 conduct.15 (B) As used in this subsection, all other terms have the meanings16 provided by K.S.A. 21-5510, and amendments thereto.17 (2) The provisions of this subsection shall be applied retroactively to18 every sex offender, as defined in K.S.A. 22-4902, and amendments19 thereto, who is on parole or postrelease supervision on July 1, 2012. The20 prisoner review board shall obtain the written agreement required by this21 subsection from such offenders as soon as practicable.22 (y) For any parolee or person on postrelease supervision who has23 been issued a valid identification card pursuant to section 9, and24 amendments thereto, the prisoner review board shall not order any25 condition that prohibits such parolee or person on postrelease supervision26 from purchasing, possessing or consuming medical cannabis or medical27 cannabis products, as such terms are defined in section 2, and28 amendments thereto, in accordance with the Kansas medical cannabis act,29 section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto.30 Sec. 63. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 22-4714 is hereby amended to read as31 follows: 22-4714. (a) A governmental agency other than a criminal justice32 agency as defined in K.S.A. 22-4701, and amendments thereto, identified33 in subsection (b) may require a person to be fingerprinted and shall submit34 such fingerprints to the Kansas bureau of investigation and the federal35 bureau of investigation for a search of the state and federal database.36 Fingerprints provided pursuant to this section may be used to identify a37 person and to determine whether such person has a record of criminal38 history in this state or in another jurisdiction. An agency identified in39 subsection (b) may use the information obtained from the criminal history40 record check for the purposes of verifying the identification of a person41 and in the official determination of the qualifications and fitness of such42 person to be issued or maintain employment, licensure, registration,43 certification or a permit, act as an agent of a licensee, hold ownership of aHB 2678 781 licensee or serve as a director or officer of a licensee.2 (b) (1) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal3 history record information related to adult convictions, adult non-4 convictions, adult diversions, adult expunged records, juvenile5 adjudications, juvenile non-adjudications, juvenile diversions and juvenile6 expunged records to:7 (A) The Kansas department for children and families or the Kansas8 department for aging and disability services for initial or continuing9 employment or participation in any program administered for the10 placement, safety, protection or treatment of vulnerable children or adults11 as described in K.S.A. 75-53,105, and amendments thereto;12 (B) the attorney general for applicants as defined in K.S.A. 75-7b01,13 and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as described14 in K.S.A. 75-7b04 and 75-7b17, and amendments thereto;15 (C) the attorney general for applicants as defined in K.S.A. 75-7c02,16 and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as described17 in K.S.A. 75-7c05, and amendments thereto;18 (D) the attorney general for applicants as defined in K.S.A. 75-7b01,19 and amendments thereto, in connection with such application for20 certification as described in K.S.A. 75-7b21, and amendments thereto; and21 (E) the attorney general for applicants as defined in K.S.A. 7e01, and22 amendments thereto, in connection with such application as described in23 K.S.A. 75-7e03, and amendments thereto.24 (2) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal history25 record information related to adult convictions, adult non-convictions,26 adult diversions, adult expunged records and juvenile expunged records to:27 (A) The state lottery for candidates for employees as defined in28 K.S.A. 74-8702, and amendments thereto, in connection with such29 employment as described in K.S.A. 74-8704, and amendments thereto; and30 (B) the Kansas racing and gaming commission for candidates for31 employees or licensees as defined in K.S.A. 74-8802, and amendments32 thereto, in connection with such employment or license as described in33 K.S.A. 74-8804, and amendments thereto, including an applicant for a34 simulcasting license.35 (3) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal history36 record information related to adult convictions, adult non-convictions,37 adult diversions, adult expunged records, juvenile adjudications, juvenile38 non-adjudications and juvenile diversions to:39 (A) The emergency medical services board for applicants as defined40 in K.S.A. 65-6129, and amendments thereto, in connection with such41 application as described in K.S.A. 65-6129, and amendments thereto;42 (B) the department of administration for candidates for sensitive43 employees as defined in K.S.A. 75-3707e, and amendments thereto, inHB 2678 791 connection with such employment as described in K.S.A. 75-3707e, and2 amendments thereto; and3 (C) the state gaming agency for candidates for employees and4 licensees as defined in K.S.A. 74-9802, and amendments thereto, in5 connection with such employment or license as described in K.S.A. 74-6 9805, and amendments thereto.7 (4) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal history8 record information related to adult convictions, adult non-convictions,9 adult diversions and adult expunged records to:10 (A) The supreme court and state board of law examiners for11 applicants as defined in K.S.A. 7-127, and amendments thereto, in12 connection with such application as described in K.S.A. 7-127, and13 amendments thereto; and14 (B) the commission on peace officers' standards and training for15 applicants for certification under the Kansas law enforcement training act16 as described in K.S.A. 74-5607, and amendments thereto.17 (5) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal history18 record information related to adult convictions, adult non-convictions,19 adult diversions and juvenile adjudications to:20 (A) The athletic commission within the Kansas department of21 commerce for a candidate for boxing commission as defined in K.S.A. 74-22 50,182, and amendments thereto, in connection with such appointment as23 described in K.S.A. 74-50,184, and amendments thereto;24 (B) the secretary of health and environment for employees at a child25 care facility as defined in K.S.A. 65-503, and amendments thereto, in26 connection with such employment as described in K.S.A. 65-516, and27 amendments thereto;28 (C) the secretary of commerce for final applicants for a sensitive29 position or employees in a sensitive position as defined in K.S.A. 202530 Supp. 74-5005a, and amendments thereto, in connection with such31 employment as described in K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 74-5005a, and32 amendments thereto;33 (D) the secretary of labor for employees as defined in K.S.A. 75-34 5702, and amendments thereto, in connection with such employment as35 described in K.S.A. 75-5702, and amendments thereto; and36 (E) the state bank commissioner for any officer, partner, member,37 owner, principal or director of an applicant or registrant in connection with38 such application or registration as described in K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 9-2411,39 and amendments thereto.40 (6) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal history41 record information related to adult convictions and juvenile adjudications42 to:43 (A) The secretary for aging and disability services for applicants asHB 2678 801 defined in K.S.A. 39-970, and amendments thereto, in connection with2 such application as described in K.S.A. 39-970, and amendments thereto;3 (B) the Kansas department for aging and disability services for4 applicants as defined in K.S.A. 39-2009, and amendments thereto, in5 connection with such application as described in K.S.A. 39-2009, and6 amendments thereto; and7 (C) the secretary for aging and disability services for applicants as8 defined in K.S.A. 65-5117, and amendments thereto, in connection with9 such application as described in K.S.A. 65-5117, and amendments thereto.10 (7) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal history11 record information related to adult convictions and adult non-convictions12 to:13 (A) The division of motor vehicles within the department of revenue14 for applicants for reinstatement of a license to drive a commercial motor15 vehicle as described in K.S.A. 8-2,142, and amendments thereto;16 (B) the board of examiners in optometry for applicants or licensees as17 defined in K.S.A. 65-1501, and amendments thereto, in connection with18 such application or an investigation as described in K.S.A. 65-1505, and19 amendments thereto;20 (C) the board of pharmacy for fingerprint candidates as defined in21 K.S.A. 65-1626, and amendments thereto, in connection with such22 application or license as described in K.S.A. 65-1696, and amendments23 thereto;24 (D) the state board of healing arts for applicants or licensees as25 defined in K.S.A. 65-2802, and amendments thereto, in connection with26 such application or an investigation as described in K.S.A. 65-28,129, and27 amendments thereto;28 (E) the state board of healing arts for applicants or licensees as29 defined in K.S.A. 65-2901, and amendments thereto, in connection with30 such application or an investigation as described in K.S.A. 65-2924, and31 amendments thereto;32 (F) the board of nursing for applicants as defined in K.S.A. 74-1112,33 and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as described34 in K.S.A. 74-1112, and amendments thereto;35 (G) the behavioral sciences regulatory board for licensees as defined36 in K.S.A. 74-7511, and amendments thereto, in connection with such37 application or license as described in K.S.A. 74-7511, and amendments38 thereto;39 (H) the state lottery for a vendor to whom a major procurement40 contract is to be awarded in connection with an investigation as described41 in K.S.A. 74-8705, and amendments thereto;42 (I) the attorney general for appointees of the governor to positions43 subject to confirmation by the senate and judicial appointees as describedHB 2678 811 in K.S.A. 75-712, and amendments thereto;2 (J) appointing authorities as defined in K.S.A. 75-4315d, and3 amendments thereto, for nongubernatorial appointees as described in4 K.S.A. 75-4315d, and amendments thereto;5 (K) the Kansas real estate commission for applicants as defined in6 K.S.A. 58-3035, and amendments thereto, or for licensees as defined in7 K.S.A. 58-3035, and amendments thereto, in connection with an8 investigation as described in K.S.A. 58-3039, and amendments thereto;9 (L) the insurance commissioner for applicants for licensure as an10 insurance agent as defined in K.S.A. 40-4902, and amendments thereto, in11 connection with such application as described in K.S.A. 40-4905, and12 amendments thereto;13 (M) the insurance commissioner for applicants as defined in K.S.A.14 40-5501, and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as15 described in K.S.A. 40-5505, and amendments thereto; and16 (N) the state bank commissioner for applicants in control of a17 licensee, licensees or key individuals as defined in K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 9-18 555, and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as19 described in K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 9-565, and amendments thereto.20 (8) The Kansas bureau of investigation shall release criminal history21 record information related to adult convictions to:22 (A) The department of agriculture for hemp employees as defined in23 K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, in connection with such24 employment as described in K.S.A. 2-3902, and amendments thereto;25 (B) the department of agriculture for applicants for licensure as a26 hemp producer as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, in27 connection with such application as described in K.S.A. 2-3906, and28 amendments thereto;29 (C) the office of state fire marshal for applicants for registration as a30 hemp processor as defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, in31 connection with such application as described in K.S.A. 2-3907, and32 amendments thereto;33 (D) the department of agriculture for hemp destruction employees as34 defined in K.S.A. 2-3901, and amendments thereto, in connection with35 such employment as described in K.S.A. 2-3911, and amendments thereto;36 (E) the bank commissioner for any applicant as defined in K.S.A. 9-37 508, and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as38 described in K.S.A. 9-509, and amendments thereto;39 (F) the bank commissioner for an applicant for employment as a new40 executive officer or director with a money transmitter company as41 described in K.S.A. 9-513e, and amendments thereto;42 (G) the bank commissioner for any applicant as defined in K.S.A. 9-43 1719, and amendments thereto, in connection with such application asHB 2678 821 described in K.S.A. 9-1722, and amendments thereto;2 (H) the bank commissioner for an applicant, registrant or licensee as3 defined in K.S.A. 9-2201, and amendments thereto, in connection with4 such application, registration or license as described in K.S.A. 9-2209, and5 amendments thereto;6 (I) the state banking board for any officer, director or organizer of a7 proposed fiduciary financial institution as defined in K.S.A. 9-2301, and8 amendments thereto, in connection with such role as described in K.S.A.9 9-2302, and amendments thereto;10 (J) municipalities for applicants for merchant or security police as11 described in K.S.A. 12-1679, and amendments thereto;12 (K) the bank commissioner for applicants as defined in K.S.A. 16a-6-13 104, and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as14 described in K.S.A. 16a-6-104, and amendments thereto;15 (L) the state department of credit unions for every candidate as16 defined in K.S.A. 17-2234, and amendments thereto, in connection with17 such employment as described in K.S.A. 17-2234, and amendments18 thereto;19 (M) the division of alcoholic beverage control within the department20 of revenue for applicants as defined in K.S.A. 41-102, and amendments21 thereto, in connection with such application as described in K.S.A. 41-22 311b, and amendments thereto;23 (N) the division of post audit for employees as defined in K.S.A. 46-24 1103, and amendments thereto, in connection with such employment as25 described in K.S.A. 46-1103, and amendments thereto;26 (O) the bank commissioner for licensees as defined in K.S.A. 50-27 1126, and amendments thereto, in connection with such license as28 described in K.S.A. 50-1128, and amendments thereto;29 (P) the real estate appraisal board for licensees as defined in K.S.A.30 58-4102, and amendments thereto, in connection with an application or31 investigation as described in K.S.A. 58-4127, and amendments thereto;32 (Q) the real estate appraisal board for applicants as defined in K.S.A.33 58-4703, and amendments thereto, in connection with such application as34 described in K.S.A. 58-4709, and amendments thereto;35 (R) the department of health and environment for an employee as36 defined in K.S.A. 65-2401, and amendments thereto, in connection with37 such employment as described in K.S.A. 65-2402, and amendments38 thereto;39 (S) the Kansas office of veterans services for candidates as defined in40 K.S.A. 73-1210a, and amendments thereto, in connection with an41 application as described in K.S.A. 73-1210a, and amendments thereto;42 (T) a senate standing committee for a member named, appointed or43 elected to the public employee retirement systems board of trusteeHB 2678 831 membership as described in K.S.A. 74-4905, and amendments thereto;2 (U) the department of revenue for employees as defined in K.S.A. 75-3 5133c, and amendments thereto, in connection with such employment as4 described in K.S.A. 75-5133c, and amendments thereto;5 (V) the division of motor vehicles within the department of revenue6 for employees as defined in K.S.A. 75-5156, and amendments thereto, in7 connection with such employment as described in K.S.A. 75-5156, and8 amendments thereto;9 (W) the Kansas commission for the deaf and hard of hearing for10 applicants as defined in K.S.A. 75-5397f, and amendments thereto, in11 connection with such application as described in K.S.A. 75-5393a, and12 amendments thereto;13 (X) the Kansas commission for the deaf and hard of hearing for14 employees as defined in K.S.A. 75-5397f, and amendments thereto, in15 connection with such employment as described in K.S.A. 75-5393c, and16 amendments thereto;17 (Y) the department of health and environment for employees as18 defined in K.S.A. 75-5609a, and amendments thereto, in connection with19 such employment as described in K.S.A. 75-5609a, and amendments20 thereto; and21 (Z) an executive branch agency head for employees as defined in22 K.S.A. 75-7241, and amendments thereto, in connection with such23 employment as described in K.S.A. 75-7241, and amendments thereto;24 and25 (AA) the director of alcoholic beverage control for applicants as26 described in section 19, and amendments thereto, in connection with such27 applications as described in section 17, and amendments thereto.28 (c) State and local law enforcement agencies shall assist with taking29 fingerprints of individuals as authorized by this section.30 (d) Any board, commission, committee or other public body shall31 recess into a closed executive session pursuant to K.S.A. 75-4319, and32 amendments thereto, to receive and discuss criminal history record33 information obtained pursuant to this section.34 (e) The Kansas bureau of investigation may charge a reasonable fee35 for conducting a criminal history record check.36 (f) (1) Fingerprints and criminal history record information received37 pursuant to this section shall be confidential and shall not be subject to the38 provisions of the Kansas open records act, K.S.A. 45-215 et seq., and39 amendments thereto. The provisions of this paragraph shall expire on July40 1, 2029, unless the legislature reviews and reenacts this provision pursuant41 to K.S.A. 45-229, and amendments thereto, prior to July 1, 2029.42 (2) Disclosure or use of any information received pursuant to this43 section for any purpose other than the purpose described in this sectionHB 2678 841 shall be a class A nonperson misdemeanor and shall constitute grounds for2 removal from office.3 Sec. 64. K.S.A. 23-3201 is hereby amended to read as follows: 23-4 3201. (a) The court shall determine legal custody, residency and parenting5 time of a child in accordance with the best interests of the child.6 (b) The court shall not consider the fact that a parent consumes7 medical cannabis or medical cannabis products, as defined in section 2,8 and amendments thereto, in accordance with the Kansas medical cannabis9 act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, when determining the legal10 custody, residency or parenting time of a child.11 Sec. 65. K.S.A. 38-2269 is hereby amended to read as follows: 38-12 2269. (a) When the child has been adjudicated to be a child in need of13 care, the court may terminate parental rights or appoint a permanent14 custodian when the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the15 parent is unfit by reason of conduct or condition which renders the parent16 unable to care properly for a child and the conduct or condition is unlikely17 to change in the foreseeable future.18 (b) In making a determination of unfitness the court shall consider,19 but is not limited to, the following, if applicable:20 (1) Emotional illness, mental illness, mental deficiency or physical21 disability of the parent, of such duration or nature as to render the parent22 unable to care for the ongoing physical, mental and emotional needs of the23 child;24 (2) conduct toward a child of a physically, emotionally or sexually25 cruel or abusive nature;26 (3) the use of intoxicating liquors or narcotic or dangerous drugs of27 such duration or nature as to render the parent unable to care for the28 ongoing physical, mental or emotional needs of the child, except that the29 use of medical cannabis or medical cannabis products, as defined in30 section 2, and amendments thereto, in accordance with the Kansas31 medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments thereto, shall not32 be considered to render the parent unable to care for the ongoing physical,33 mental or emotional needs of the child;34 (4) physical, mental or emotional abuse or neglect or sexual abuse of35 a child;36 (5) conviction of a felony and imprisonment;37 (6) unexplained injury or death of another child or stepchild of the38 parent or any child in the care of the parent at the time of injury or death;39 (7) failure of reasonable efforts made by appropriate public or private40 agencies to rehabilitate the family;41 (8) lack of effort on the part of the parent to adjust the parent's42 circumstances, conduct or conditions to meet the needs of the child; and43 (9) whether, as a result of the actions or inactions attributable to theHB 2678 851 parent and one or more of the factors listed in subsection (c) apply, the2 child has been in the custody of the secretary and placed with neither3 parent for 15 of the most recent 22 months beginning 60 days after the4 date on which a child in the secretary's custody was removed from the5 child's home.6 (c) In addition to the foregoing, when a child is not in the physical7 custody of a parent, the court, shall consider, but is not limited to, the8 following:9 (1) Failure to assure care of the child in the parental home when able10 to do so;11 (2) failure to maintain regular visitation, contact or communication12 with the child or with the custodian of the child;13 (3) failure to carry out a reasonable plan approved by the court14 directed toward the integration of the child into a parental home; and15 (4) failure to pay a reasonable portion of the cost of substitute16 physical care and maintenance based on ability to pay.17 In making the above determination, the court may disregard incidental18 visitations, contacts, communications or contributions.19 (d) A finding of unfitness may be made as provided in this section if20 the court finds that the parents have abandoned the child, the custody of21 the child was surrendered pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2282, and amendments22 thereto, or the child was left under such circumstances that the identity of23 the parents is unknown and cannot be ascertained, despite diligent24 searching, and the parents have not come forward to claim the child within25 three months after the child is found.26 (e) If a person is convicted of a felony in which sexual intercourse27 occurred, or if a juvenile is adjudicated a juvenile offender because of an28 act which, if committed by an adult, would be a felony in which sexual29 intercourse occurred, and as a result of the sexual intercourse, a child is30 conceived, a finding of unfitness may be made.31 (f) The existence of any one of the above factors standing alone may,32 but does not necessarily, establish grounds for termination of parental33 rights.34 (g) (1) If the court makes a finding of unfitness, the court shall35 consider whether termination of parental rights as requested in the petition36 or motion is in the best interests of the child. In making the determination,37 the court shall give primary consideration to the physical, mental and38 emotional health of the child. If the physical, mental or emotional needs of39 the child would best be served by termination of parental rights, the court40 shall so order. A termination of parental rights under the code shall not41 terminate the right of a child to inherit from or through a parent. Upon42 such termination all rights of the parent to such child, including, such43 parent's right to inherit from or through such child, shall cease.HB 2678 861 (2) If the court terminates parental rights, the court may authorize2 adoption pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2270, and amendments thereto,3 appointment of a permanent custodian pursuant to K.S.A. 38-2272, and4 amendments thereto, or continued permanency planning.5 (3) If the court does not terminate parental rights, the court may6 authorize appointment of a permanent custodian pursuant to K.S.A. 38-7 2272, and amendments thereto, or continued permanency planning.8 (h) If a parent is convicted of an offense as provided in K.S.A. 38-9 2271(a)(7), and amendments thereto, or is adjudicated a juvenile offender10 because of an act which if committed by an adult would be an offense as11 provided in K.S.A. 38-2271(a)(7), and amendments thereto, and if the12 victim was the other parent of a child, the court may disregard such13 convicted or adjudicated parent's opinions or wishes in regard to the14 placement of such child.15 (i) A record shall be made of the proceedings.16 (j) When adoption, proceedings to appoint a permanent custodian or17 continued permanency planning has been authorized, the person or agency18 awarded custody of the child shall within 30 days submit a written plan for19 permanent placement which shall include measurable objectives and time20 schedules.21 Sec. 66. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 44-501 is hereby amended to read as22 follows: 44-501. (a) (1) Compensation for an injury shall be disallowed if23 such injury to the employee results from:24 (A) The employee's deliberate intention to cause such injury;25 (B) the employee's willful failure to use a guard or protection against26 accident or injury which is required pursuant to any statute and provided27 for the employee;28 (C) the employee's willful failure to use a reasonable and proper29 guard and protection voluntarily furnished the employee by the employer;30 (D) the employee's reckless violation of their employer's workplace31 safety rules or regulations; or32 (E) the employee's voluntary participation in fighting or horseplay33 with a co-employee for any reason, work related or otherwise.34 (2) Subparagraphs (B) and (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection35 (a)Subsections (a)(1)(B) and (a)(1)(C) shall not apply when it was36 reasonable under the totality of the circumstances to not use such37 equipment, or if the employer approved the work engaged in at the time of38 an accident or injury to be performed without such equipment.39 (b) (1) (A) The employer shall not be liable under the workers40 compensation act where the injury, disability or death was contributed to41 by the employee's use or consumption of alcohol or any drugs, chemicals42 or any other compounds or substances, including, but not limited to, any43 drugs or medications which that are available to the public without aHB 2678 871 prescription from a healthcare provider, prescription drugs or medications,2 any form or type of narcotic drugs, marijuana, stimulants, depressants or3 hallucinogens.4 (B) (i) In the case of drugs or medications which are available to the5 public without a prescription from a healthcare provider and prescription6 drugs or medications, compensation shall not be denied if the employee7 can show that such drugs or medications were being taken or used in8 therapeutic doses and there have been no prior incidences of the9 employee's impairment on the job as the result of the use of such drugs or10 medications within the previous 24 months.11 (ii) In the case of cannabis, including any cannabis derivatives,12 compensation shall not be denied if the employee has been issued a valid13 identification card pursuant to the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 114 et seq., and amendments thereto, such cannabis or cannabis derivative15 was used in accordance with such act, and there has been no prior16 incidence of the employee's impairment on the job as a result of the use of17 such cannabis or cannabis derivative within the immediately preceding 2418 months.19 (C) It shall be conclusively presumed that the employee was impaired20 due to alcohol or drugs if it is shown that, at the time of the injury, the21 employee had an alcohol concentration of .04 or more, or a GCMS22 confirmatory test by quantitative analysis showing a concentration at or23 above the levels shown on the following chart for the drugs of abuse listed:24Confirmatory25test cutoff26levels (ng/ml)27 Marijuana metabolite1 .............................................................. 1528 Cocaine metabolite2.................................................................. 15029 Opiates:30 Morphine ............................................................................. 200031 Codeine ............................................................................... 200032 6-Acetylmorphine4 ................................................................... 10 ng/ml33 Phencyclidine ........................................................................... 2534 Amphetamines:35 Amphetamine ...................................................................... 50036 Methamphetamine3 .............................................................. 500137 Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol-9-carboxylic acid.238 Benzoylecgonine.339 Specimen must also contain amphetamine at a concentration greater40 than or equal to 200 ng/ml.441 Test for 6-AM when morphine concentration exceeds 2,000 ng/ml.42 (D) If it is shown that the employee was impaired pursuant to43 subsection (b)(1)(C) at the time of the injury, there shall be a rebuttableHB 2678 881 presumption that the accident, injury, disability or death was contributed to2 by such impairment. The employee may overcome the presumption of3 contribution by clear and convincing evidence.4 (E) An employee's refusal to submit to a chemical test at the request5 of the employer shall result in the forfeiture of benefits under the workers6 compensation act if the employer had sufficient cause to suspect the use of7 alcohol or drugs by the claimant or if the employer's policy clearly8 authorizes post-injury testing.9 (2) The results of a chemical test shall be admissible evidence to10 prove impairment if the employer establishes that the testing was done11 under any of the following circumstances:12 (A) As a result of an employer mandated drug testing policy, in place13 in writing prior to the date of accident or injury, requiring any worker to14 submit to testing for drugs or alcohol;15 (B) during an autopsy or in the normal course of medical treatment16 for reasons related to the health and welfare of the injured worker and not17 at the direction of the employer;18 (C) the worker, prior to the date and time of the accident or injury,19 gave written consent to the employer that the worker would voluntarily20 submit to a chemical test for drugs or alcohol following any accident or21 injury;22 (D) the worker voluntarily agrees to submit to a chemical test for23 drugs or alcohol following any accident or injury; or24 (E) as a result of federal or state law or a federal or state rule or25 regulation having the force and effect of law requiring a post-injury testing26 program and such required program was properly implemented at the time27 of testing.28 (3) Notwithstanding subsection (b)(2), the results of a chemical test29 performed on a sample collected by an employer shall not be admissible30 evidence to prove impairment unless the following conditions are met:31 (A) The test sample was collected within a reasonable time following32 the accident or injury;33 (B) the collecting and labeling of the test sample was performed by or34 under the supervision of a licensed healthcare professional;35 (C) the test was performed by a laboratory approved by the United36 States department of health and human services or licensed by the37 department of health and environment, except that a blood sample may be38 tested for alcohol content by a laboratory commonly used for that purpose39 by state law enforcement agencies;40 (D) the test was confirmed by gas chromatography-mass41 spectroscopy or other comparably reliable analytical method, except that42 no such confirmation is required for a blood alcohol sample;43 (E) the foundation evidence must establish, beyond a reasonableHB 2678 891 doubt, that the test results were from the sample taken from the employee;2 and3 (F) a split sample sufficient for testing shall be retained and made4 available to the employee within 48 hours of a positive test.5 (c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), compensation shall not6 be paid in case of coronary or coronary artery disease or cerebrovascular7 injury unless it is shown that the exertion of the work necessary to8 precipitate the disability was more than the employee's usual work in the9 course of the employee's regular employment.10 (2) For events occurring on or after July 1, 2014, in the case of a11 firefighter as defined by K.S.A. 40-1709(b)(1), and amendments thereto,12 or a law enforcement officer as defined by K.S.A. 74-5602, and13 amendments thereto, coronary or coronary artery disease or14 cerebrovascular injury shall be compensable if:15 (A) The injury can be identified as caused by a specific event16 occurring in the course and scope of employment;17 (B) the coronary or cerebrovascular injury occurred within 24 hours18 of the specific event; and19 (C) the specific event was the prevailing factor in causing the20 coronary or coronary artery disease or cerebrovascular injury.21 (d) Except as provided in the workers compensation act, no22 construction design professional who is retained to perform professional23 services on a construction project or any employee of a construction24 design professional who is assisting or representing the construction25 design professional in the performance of professional services on the site26 of the construction project, shall be liable for any injury resulting from the27 employer's failure to comply with safety standards on the construction28 project for which compensation is recoverable under the workers29 compensation act, unless responsibility for safety practices is specifically30 assumed by contract. The immunity provided by this subsection to any31 construction design professional shall not apply to the negligent32 preparation of design plans or specifications.33 (e) An award of compensation for permanent partial impairment,34 work disability, or permanent total disability shall be reduced by the35 amount of functional impairment determined to be preexisting to the same36 physical structure as the body part injured. Any such reduction shall not37 apply to temporary total disability, nor shall it apply to compensation for38 medical treatment.39 (1) Where workers compensation benefits have previously been40 awarded through settlement or judicial or administrative determination in41 Kansas, the percentage basis of the prior settlement or award shall42 conclusively establish the amount of functional impairment determined to43 be preexisting. Where workers compensation benefits have not previouslyHB 2678 901 been awarded through settlement or judicial or administrative2 determination in Kansas, the amount of preexisting functional impairment3 shall be established by competent evidence.4 (2) In all cases, the applicable reduction shall be calculated as5 follows:6 (A) If the preexisting impairment is the result of injury sustained7 while working for the employer against whom workers compensation8 benefits are currently being sought, any award of compensation shall be9 reduced by the current dollar value attributable under the workers10 compensation act to the percentage of functional impairment determined to11 be preexisting. The "current dollar value" shall be calculated by12 multiplying the percentage of preexisting impairment by the compensation13 rate in effect on the date of the accident or injury against which the14 reduction will be applied.15 (B) In all other cases, the employer against whom benefits are16 currently being sought shall be entitled to a credit for the percentage of17 preexisting impairment.18 (f) If the employee receives retirement benefits under the federal19 social security act, any compensation benefit payments for permanent20 partial disability or permanent total disability that the employee is eligible21 to receive under the workers compensation act for such claim shall be22 reduced by 50% of the weekly equivalent amount of such retirement23 benefits, but in no event shall the workers compensation benefit be less24 than the workers compensation benefit payable for the employee's25 percentage of functional impairment. The reduction in benefits allowed by26 this subsection shall not apply to temporary total disability compensation27 or temporary partial disability compensation.28 (g) If the employee receives retirement benefits from any other29 retirement system, program, policy or plan that is provided by the30 employer against whom the claim is being made, any compensation for31 permanent partial disability or permanent total disability benefits the32 employee is eligible to receive under the workers compensation act for the33 claim shall be reduced by the weekly equivalent amount of such retirement34 benefits less any portion of any such retirement benefit that is attributable35 to payments or contributions made by the employee. In no event shall the36 workers compensation benefit be less than the workers compensation37 benefit payable for the employee's percentage of functional impairment.38 The credit allowed by this subsection shall not apply to temporary total39 disability compensation or temporary partial disability compensation.40 (h) Where the employee elects to take retirement benefits in a lump41 sum, the lump sum payment shall be amortized at the rate of 4% per year42 over the employee's life expectancy to determine the weekly equivalent43 value of the benefits.HB 2678 911 Sec. 67. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 44-706 is hereby amended to read as2 follows: 44-706. The secretary shall examine whether an individual has3 separated from employment for each week claimed. The secretary shall4 apply the provisions of this section to the individual's most recent5 employment prior to the week claimed. An individual shall be disqualified6 for benefits:7 (a) If the individual left work voluntarily without good cause8 attributable to the work or the employer, subject to the other provisions of9 this subsection. For purposes of this subsection, "good cause" is cause of10 such gravity that would impel a reasonable, not supersensitive, individual11 exercising ordinary common sense to leave employment. Good cause12 requires a showing of good faith of the individual leaving work, including13 the presence of a genuine desire to work. Failure to return to work after14 expiration of approved personal or medical leave, or both, shall be15 considered a voluntary resignation. After a temporary job assignment,16 failure of an individual to affirmatively request an additional assignment17 on the next succeeding workday, if required by the employment18 agreement, after completion of a given work assignment, shall constitute19 leaving work voluntarily. The disqualification shall begin the day20 following the separation and shall continue until after the individual has21 become reemployed and has had earnings from insured work of at least22 three times the individual's weekly benefit amount. An individual shall not23 be disqualified under this subsection if:24 (1) The individual was forced to leave work because of illness or25 injury upon the advice of a licensed and practicing healthcare provider26 and, upon learning of the necessity for absence, immediately notified the27 employer thereof, or the employer consented to the absence, and after28 recovery from the illness or injury, when recovery was certified by a29 practicing health care provider, the individual returned to the employer and30 offered to perform services and the individual's regular work or31 comparable and suitable work was not available. As used in this paragraph32 "healthcare provider" means any person licensed by the proper licensing33 authority of any state to engage in the practice of medicine and surgery,34 osteopathy, chiropractic, dentistry, optometry, podiatry or psychology;35 (2) the individual left temporary work to return to the regular36 employer;37 (3) the individual left work to enter active service in the armed forces38 of the United States but was rejected or delayed from entry;39 (4) the spouse of an individual who is a member of the armed forces40 of the United States who left work because of the voluntary or involuntary41 transfer of the individual's spouse from one job to another job that is for42 the same employer or for a different employer, at a geographic location43 that makes it unreasonable for the individual to continue work at theHB 2678 921 individual's job. For the purposes of this provision "member of the armed2 forces" means a person performing active service in the army, navy,3 marine corps, air force, space force, coast guard or any component of the4 military reserves of the United States;5 (5) the individual left work because of hazardous working conditions;6 in determining whether or not working conditions are hazardous for an7 individual, the degree of risk involved to the individual's health, safety and8 morals, the individual's physical fitness and prior training and the working9 conditions of workers engaged in the same or similar work for the same10 and other employers in the locality shall be considered; as used in this11 paragraph, "hazardous working conditions" means working conditions that12 could result in a danger to the physical or mental well-being of the13 individual; each determination as to whether hazardous working14 conditions exist shall include, but shall not be limited to, a consideration15 of: (A) The safety measures used or the lack thereof; and (B) the condition16 of equipment or lack of proper equipment; no work shall be considered17 hazardous if the working conditions surrounding the individual's work are18 the same or substantially the same as the working conditions generally19 prevailing among individuals performing the same or similar work for20 other employers engaged in the same or similar type of activity;21 (6) the individual left work to enter training approved under section22 236(a)(1) of the federal trade act of 1974, provided the work left is not of a23 substantially equal or higher skill level than the individual's past adversely24 affected employment, as defined for purposes of the federal trade act of25 1974, and wages for such work are not less than 80% of the individual's26 average weekly wage as determined for the purposes of the federal trade27 act of 1974;28 (7) the individual left work because of unwelcome harassment of the29 individual by the employer or another employee of which the employing30 unit had knowledge and that would impel the average worker to give up31 such worker's employment;32 (8) the individual left work to accept better work; each determination33 as to whether or not the work accepted is better work shall include, but34 shall not be limited to, consideration of: (A) The rate of pay, the hours of35 work and the probable permanency of the work left as compared to the36 work accepted; (B) the cost to the individual of getting to the work left in37 comparison to the cost of getting to the work accepted; and (C) the38 distance from the individual's place of residence to the work accepted in39 comparison to the distance from the individual's residence to the work left;40 (9) the individual left work as a result of being instructed or requested41 by the employer, a supervisor or a fellow employee to perform a service or42 commit an act in the scope of official job duties that is in violation of an43 ordinance or statute;HB 2678 931 (10) the individual left work because of a substantial violation of the2 work agreement by the employing unit and, before the individual left, the3 individual had exhausted all remedies provided in such agreement for the4 settlement of disputes before terminating. For the purposes of this5 paragraph, a demotion based on performance does not constitute a6 violation of the work agreement;7 (11) after making reasonable efforts to preserve the work, the8 individual left work due to a personal emergency of such nature and9 compelling urgency that it would be contrary to good conscience to10 impose a disqualification; or11 (12) (A) the individual left work due to circumstances resulting from12 domestic violence, including:13 (i) The individual's reasonable fear of future domestic violence at or14 en route to or from the individual's place of employment;15 (ii) the individual's need to relocate to another geographic area in16 order to avoid future domestic violence;17 (iii) the individual's need to address the physical, psychological and18 legal impacts of domestic violence;19 (iv) the individual's need to leave employment as a condition of20 receiving services or shelter from an agency that provides support services21 or shelter to victims of domestic violence; or22 (v) the individual's reasonable belief that termination of employment23 is necessary to avoid other situations that may cause domestic violence and24 to provide for the future safety of the individual or the individual's family.25 (B) An individual may prove the existence of domestic violence by26 providing one of the following:27 (i) A restraining order or other documentation of equitable relief by a28 court of competent jurisdiction;29 (ii) a police record documenting the abuse;30 (iii) documentation that the abuser has been convicted of one or more31 of the offenses enumerated in articles 34 and 35 of chapter 21 of the32 Kansas Statutes Annotated, prior to their repeal, or articles 54 or 55 of33 chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, or K.S.A. 21-6104, 21-6325,34 21-6326 or 21-6418 through 21-6422, and amendments thereto, where the35 victim was a family or household member;36 (iv) medical documentation of the abuse;37 (v) a statement provided by a counselor, social worker, health care38 provider, clergy, shelter worker, legal advocate, domestic violence or39 sexual assault advocate or other professional who has assisted the40 individual in dealing with the effects of abuse on the individual or the41 individual's family; or42 (vi) a sworn statement from the individual attesting to the abuse.43 (C) No evidence of domestic violence experienced by an individual,HB 2678 941 including the individual's statement and corroborating evidence, shall be2 disclosed by the department of labor unless consent for disclosure is given3 by the individual.4 (b) If the individual has been discharged or suspended for misconduct5 connected with the individual's work. The disqualification shall begin the6 day following the separation and shall continue until after the individual7 becomes reemployed and in cases where the disqualification is due to8 discharge for misconduct has had earnings from insured work of at least9 three times the individual's determined weekly benefit amount, except that10 if an individual is discharged for gross misconduct connected with the11 individual's work, such individual shall be disqualified for benefits until12 such individual again becomes employed and has had earnings from13 insured work of at least eight times such individual's determined weekly14 benefit amount. In addition, all wage credits attributable to the15 employment from which the individual was discharged for gross16 misconduct connected with the individual's work shall be canceled. No17 such cancellation of wage credits shall affect prior payments made as a18 result of a prior separation.19 (1) (A) As used in this subsection, "misconduct" means a violation of20 a duty or obligation reasonably owed the employer as a condition of21 employment including, but not limited to, a violation of a company rule,22 including a safety rule, if: (A)(i) The individual knew or should have23 known about the rule; (B)(ii) the rule was lawful and reasonably related to24 the job; and (C)(iii) the rule was fairly and consistently enforced.25 (B) "Misconduct" does not include any violation of a duty, obligation26 or company rule, if: (i) The individual is a patient who has been issued a27 valid identification card pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto;28 and (ii) the basis for the violation is the possession of such identification29 card or the possession or use of medical cannabis or a medical cannabis30 product, as such terms are defined in section 2, and amendments thereto,31 in accordance with the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and32 amendments thereto.33 (2) (A) Failure of the employee to notify the employer of an absence34 and an individual's leaving work prior to the end of such individual's35 assigned work period without permission shall be considered prima facie36 evidence of a violation of a duty or obligation reasonably owed the37 employer as a condition of employment.38 (B) For the purposes of this subsection, misconduct shall include, but39 not be limited to, violation of the employer's reasonable attendance40 expectations if the facts show:41 (i) The individual was absent or tardy without good cause;42 (ii) the individual had knowledge of the employer's attendance43 expectation; andHB 2678 951 (iii) the employer gave notice to the individual that future absence or2 tardiness may or will result in discharge.3 (C) For the purposes of this subsection, if an employee disputes being4 absent or tardy without good cause, the employee shall present evidence5 that a majority of the employee's absences or tardiness were for good6 cause. If the employee alleges that the employee's repeated absences or7 tardiness were the result of health related issues, such evidence shall8 include documentation from a licensed and practicing healthcare provider9 as defined in subsection (a)(1).10 (3) (A) (i) The term "gross misconduct" as used in this subsection11 shall be construed to mean conduct evincing extreme, willful or wanton12 misconduct as defined by this subsection. Gross misconduct shall include,13 but not be limited to: (i)(a) Theft; (ii)(b) fraud; (iii)(c) intentional damage14 to property; (iv)(d) intentional infliction of personal injury; or (v)(e) any15 conduct that constitutes a felony.16 (ii) "Gross misconduct" does not include any conduct of an17 individual, if: (i) The individual is a patient who has been issued a valid18 identification card pursuant to section 9, and amendments thereto; and (ii)19 the basis for the violation is the possession of such identification card or20 the possession or use of medical cannabis or a medical cannabis product,21 as such terms are defined in section 2, and amendments thereto, in22 accordance with the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and23 amendments thereto.24 (B) For the purposes of this subsection, the following shall be25 conclusive evidence of gross misconduct:26 (i) The use of alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage or a27 nonprescribed controlled substance by an individual while working;28 (ii) the impairment caused by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage29 or a nonprescribed controlled substance by an individual while working;30 (iii) a positive breath alcohol test or a positive chemical test, if:31 (a) The test was either:32 (1) Required by law and was administered pursuant to the drug free33 workplace act, 41 U.S.C. § 701 et seq.;34 (2) administered as part of an employee assistance program or other35 drug or alcohol treatment program in which the employee was36 participating voluntarily or as a condition of further employment;37 (3) requested pursuant to a written policy of the employer of which38 the employee had knowledge and was a required condition of39 employment;40 (4) required by law and the test constituted a required condition of41 employment for the individual's job; or42 (5) there was reasonable suspicion to believe that the individual used,43 had possession of, or was impaired by alcoholic liquor, cereal maltHB 2678 961 beverage or a nonprescribed controlled substance while working;2 (b) the test sample was collected either:3 (1) As prescribed by the drug free workplace act, 41 U.S.C. § 701 et4 seq.;5 (2) as prescribed by an employee assistance program or other drug or6 alcohol treatment program in which the employee was participating7 voluntarily or as a condition of further employment;8 (3) as prescribed by the written policy of the employer of which the9 employee had knowledge and that constituted a required condition of10 employment;11 (4) as prescribed by a test that was required by law and which12 constituted a required condition of employment for the individual's job; or13 (5) at a time contemporaneous with the events establishing probable14 cause;15 (c) the collecting and labeling of a chemical test sample was16 performed by a licensed health care professional or any other individual17 certified pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(A)(iii)(f) subsection (b)(3)(B)(iii)(f)18 or authorized to collect or label test samples by federal or state law, or a19 federal or state rule or regulation having the force or effect of law,20 including law enforcement personnel;21 (d) the chemical test was performed by a laboratory approved by the22 United States department of health and human services or licensed by the23 department of health and environment, except that a blood sample may be24 tested for alcohol content by a laboratory commonly used for that purpose25 by state law enforcement agencies;26 (e) the chemical test was confirmed by gas chromatography, gas27 chromatography-mass spectroscopy or other comparably reliable28 analytical method, except that no such confirmation is required for a blood29 alcohol sample or a breath alcohol test;30 (f) the breath alcohol test was administered by an individual trained31 to perform breath tests, the breath testing instrument used was certified32 and operated strictly according to a description provided by the33 manufacturers and the reliability of the instrument performance was34 assured by testing with alcohol standards; and35 (g) the foundation evidence establishes, beyond a reasonable doubt,36 that the test results were from the sample taken from the individual;37 (iv) an individual's refusal to submit to a chemical test or breath38 alcohol test, if:39 (a) The test meets the standards of the drug free workplace act, 4140 U.S.C. § 701 et seq.;41 (b) the test was administered as part of an employee assistance42 program or other drug or alcohol treatment program in which the43 employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of furtherHB 2678 971 employment;2 (c) the test was otherwise required by law and the test constituted a3 required condition of employment for the individual's job;4 (d) the test was requested pursuant to a written policy of the employer5 of which the employee had knowledge and was a required condition of6 employment; or7 (e) there was reasonable suspicion to believe that the individual used,8 possessed or was impaired by alcoholic liquor, cereal malt beverage or a9 nonprescribed controlled substance while working; and10 (v) an individual's dilution or other tampering of a chemical test.11 (C) For purposes of this subsection:12 (i) "Alcohol concentration" means the number of grams of alcohol13 per 210 liters of breath;14 (ii) "alcoholic liquor" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 41-102,15 and amendments thereto;16 (iii) "cereal malt beverage" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 41-17 2701, and amendments thereto;18 (iv) "chemical test" includes, but is not limited to, tests of urine,19 blood or saliva;20 (v) "controlled substance" means the same as defined in K.S.A. 21-21 5701, and amendments thereto;22 (vi) "required by law" means required by a federal or state law, a23 federal or state rule or regulation having the force and effect of law, a24 county resolution or municipal ordinance, or a policy relating to public25 safety adopted in an open meeting by the governing body of any special26 district or other local governmental entity;27 (vii) "positive breath test" means a test result showing an alcohol28 concentration of 0.04 or greater, or the levels listed in 49 C.F.R. part 40, if29 applicable, unless the test was administered as part of an employee30 assistance program or other drug or alcohol treatment program in which31 the employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of further32 employment, in which case "positive chemical test" means a test result33 showing an alcohol concentration at or above the levels provided for in the34 assistance or treatment program; and35 (viii) "positive chemical test" means a chemical result showing a36 concentration at or above the levels listed in K.S.A. 44-501, and37 amendments thereto, or 49 C.F.R. part 40, as applicable, for the drugs or38 abuse listed therein, unless the test was administered as part of an39 employee assistance program or other drug or alcohol treatment program40 in which the employee was participating voluntarily or as a condition of41 further employment, in which case "positive chemical test" means a42 chemical result showing a concentration at or above the levels provided for43 in the assistance or treatment program.HB 2678 981 (4) An individual shall not be disqualified under this subsection if the2 individual is discharged under the following circumstances:3 (A) The employer discharged the individual after learning the4 individual was seeking other work or when the individual gave notice of5 future intent to quit, except that the individual shall be disqualified after6 the time that such individual intended to quit and any individual who7 commits misconduct after such individual gives notice to such individual's8 intent to quit shall be disqualified;9 (B) the individual was making a good faith effort to do the assigned10 work but was discharged due to:11 (i) Inefficiency;12 (ii) unsatisfactory performance due to inability, incapacity or lack of13 training or experience;14 (iii) isolated instances of ordinary negligence or inadvertence;15 (iv) good faith errors in judgment or discretion; or16 (v) unsatisfactory work or conduct due to circumstances beyond the17 individual's control; or18 (C) the individual's refusal to perform work in excess of the contract19 of hire.20 (c) If the individual has failed, without good cause, to either apply for21 suitable work when so directed by the employment office of the secretary22 of labor, or to accept suitable work when offered to the individual by the23 employment office, the secretary of labor, or an employer, such24 disqualification shall begin with the week in which such failure occurred25 and shall continue until the individual becomes reemployed and has had26 earnings from insured work of at least three times such individual's27 determined weekly benefit amount. In determining whether or not any28 work is suitable for an individual, the secretary of labor, or a person or29 persons designated by the secretary, shall consider the degree of risk30 involved to health, safety and morals, physical fitness and prior training,31 experience and prior earnings, length of unemployment and prospects for32 securing local work in the individual's customary occupation or work for33 which the individual is reasonably fit by training or experience, and the34 distance of the available work from the individual's residence.35 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this act, an otherwise eligible36 individual shall not be disqualified for refusing an offer of suitable37 employment, or failing to apply for suitable employment when notified by38 an employment office, or for leaving the individual's most recent work39 accepted during approved training, including training approved under40 section 236(a)(1) of the trade act of 1974, if the acceptance of or applying41 for suitable employment or continuing such work would require the42 individual to terminate approved training and no work shall be deemed43 suitable and benefits shall not be denied under this act to any otherwiseHB 2678 991 eligible individual for refusing to accept new work under any of the2 following conditions:3 (1) If the position offered is vacant due directly to a strike, lockout or4 other labor dispute;5 (2) if the remuneration, hours or other conditions of the work offered6 are substantially less favorable to the individual than those prevailing for7 similar work in the locality;8 (3) if as a condition of being employed, the individual would be9 required to join or to resign from or refrain from joining any labor10 organization; and11 (4) if the individual left employment as a result of domestic violence,12 and the position offered does not reasonably accommodate the individual's13 physical, psychological, safety, or legal needs relating to such domestic14 violence.15 (d) For any week with respect to which the secretary of labor, or a16 person or persons designated by the secretary, finds that the individual's17 unemployment is due to a stoppage of work that exists because of a labor18 dispute or there would have been a work stoppage had normal operations19 not been maintained with other personnel previously and currently20 employed by the same employer at the factory, establishment or other21 premises at which the individual is or was last employed, except that this22 subsection (d) shall not apply if it is shown to the satisfaction of the23 secretary of labor, or a person or persons designated by the secretary, that:24 (1) The individual is not participating in or financing or directly25 interested in the labor dispute that caused the stoppage of work; and26 (2) the individual does not belong to a grade or class of workers of27 which, immediately before the commencement of the stoppage, there were28 members employed at the premises where the stoppage occurs any of29 whom are participating in or financing or directly interested in the dispute.30 If in any case separate branches of work that are commonly conducted as31 separate businesses in separate premises are conducted in separate32 departments of the same premises, each such department shall, for the33 purpose of this subsection be deemed to be a separate factory,34 establishment or other premises. For the purposes of this subsection,35 failure or refusal to cross a picket line or refusal for any reason during the36 continuance of such labor dispute to accept the individual's available and37 customary work at the factory, establishment or other premises where the38 individual is or was last employed shall be considered as participation and39 interest in the labor dispute.40 (e) For any week or a part of the week in which the individual has41 received or is seeking unemployment benefits under the unemployment42 compensation law of any other state or of the United States, except that if43 the appropriate agency of such other state or the United States finallyHB 2678 1001 determines that the individual is not entitled to such unemployment2 benefits, this disqualification shall not apply.3 (f) For any week in which the individual is entitled to receive any4 unemployment allowance or compensation granted by the United States5 under an act of congress to former members of the armed forces in6 recognition of former service with the military, naval, air or space services7 of the United States.8 (g) If the individual, or another in such individual's behalf with the9 knowledge of the individual, has knowingly made a false statement or10 representation, or has knowingly failed to disclose a material fact to obtain11 or increase benefits under this act or any other unemployment12 compensation law administered by the secretary of labor, unless the13 individual has repaid the full amount of the overpayment as determined by14 the secretary or the secretary's designee, including, but not limited to, the15 total amount of money erroneously paid as benefits or unlawfully16 obtained, interest, penalties and any other costs or fees provided by law. If17 the individual has made such repayment, the individual shall be18 disqualified for a period of one year for the first occurrence or five years19 for any subsequent occurrence, beginning with the first day following the20 date the department of labor confirmed the individual has successfully21 repaid the full amount of the overpayment. In addition to the penalties set22 forth in K.S.A. 44-719, and amendments thereto, an individual who has23 knowingly made a false statement or representation or who has knowingly24 failed to disclose a material fact to obtain or increase benefits under this25 act or any other unemployment compensation law administered by the26 secretary of labor shall be liable for a penalty in the amount equal to 25%27 of the amount of benefits unlawfully received. Notwithstanding any other28 provision of law, such penalty shall be deposited into the employment29 security trust fund. No person who is a victim of identify theft shall be30 subject to the provisions of this subsection. The secretary shall investigate31 all cases of an alleged false statement or representation or failure to32 disclose a material fact to ensure no victim of identity theft is disqualified,33 required to repay or subject to any penalty as provided by this subsection34 as a result of identity theft.35 (h) For any week in which the individual is receiving compensation36 for temporary total disability or permanent total disability under the37 workmen's compensation law of any state or under a similar law of the38 United States.39 (i) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in an40 instructional, research or principal administrative capacity for an41 educational institution as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and amendments42 thereto, if such week begins during the period between two successive43 academic years or terms or, when an agreement provides instead for aHB 2678 1011 similar period between two regular but not successive terms during such2 period or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in the3 individual's contract, if the individual performs such services in the first of4 such academic years or terms and there is a contract or a reasonable5 assurance that such individual will perform services in any such capacity6 for any educational institution in the second of such academic years or7 terms.8 (j) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in any9 capacity other than service in an instructional, research, or administrative10 capacity in an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and11 amendments thereto, if such week begins during the period between two12 successive academic years or terms if the individual performs such13 services in the first of such academic years or terms and there is a14 reasonable assurance that the individual will perform such services in the15 second of such academic years or terms, except that if benefits are denied16 to the individual under this subsection and the individual was not offered17 an opportunity to perform such services for the educational institution for18 the second of such academic years or terms, such individual shall be19 entitled to a retroactive payment of benefits for each week for which the20 individual filed a timely claim for benefits and such benefits were denied21 solely by reason of this subsection.22 (k) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service in any23 capacity for an educational institution as defined in K.S.A. 44-703(v), and24 amendments thereto, if such week begins during an established and25 customary vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performs26 services in the period immediately before such vacation period or holiday27 recess and there is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform28 such services in the period immediately following such vacation period or29 holiday recess.30 (l) For any week of unemployment on the basis of any services,31 consisting of participating in sports or athletic events or training or32 preparing to so participate, if such week begins during the period between33 two successive sport seasons or similar period if such individual34 performed services in the first of such seasons or similar periods and there35 is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform such services in36 the later of such seasons or similar periods.37 (m) For any week on the basis of services performed by an alien38 unless such alien is an individual who was lawfully admitted for39 permanent residence at the time such services were performed, was40 lawfully present for purposes of performing such services, or was41 permanently residing in the United States under color of law at the time42 such services were performed, including an alien who was lawfully present43 in the United States as a result of the application of the provisions ofHB 2678 1021 section 212(d)(5) of the federal immigration and nationality act. Any data2 or information required of individuals applying for benefits to determine3 whether benefits are not payable to them because of their alien status shall4 be uniformly required from all applicants for benefits. In the case of an5 individual whose application for benefits would otherwise be approved, no6 determination that benefits to such individual are not payable because of7 such individual's alien status shall be made except upon a preponderance8 of the evidence.9 (n) For any week in which an individual is receiving a governmental10 or other pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar11 periodic payment under a plan maintained by a base period employer and12 to which the entire contributions were provided by such employer, except13 that:14 (1) If the entire contributions to such plan were provided by the base15 period employer but such individual's weekly benefit amount exceeds such16 governmental or other pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other17 similar periodic payment attributable to such week, the weekly benefit18 amount payable to the individual shall be reduced, but not below zero, by19 an amount equal to the amount of such pension, retirement or retired pay,20 annuity or other similar periodic payment that is attributable to such week;21 or22 (2) if only a portion of contributions to such plan were provided by23 the base period employer, the weekly benefit amount payable to such24 individual for such week shall be reduced, but not below zero, by the25 prorated weekly amount of the pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity26 or other similar periodic payment after deduction of that portion of the27 pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar periodic28 payment that is directly attributable to the percentage of the contributions29 made to the plan by such individual; or30 (3) if the entire contributions to the plan were provided by such31 individual, or by the individual and an employer, or any person or32 organization, who is not a base period employer, no reduction in the33 weekly benefit amount payable to the individual for such week shall be34 made under this subsection; or35 (4) whatever portion of contributions to such plan were provided by36 the base period employer, if the services performed for the employer by37 such individual during the base period, or remuneration received for the38 services, did not affect the individual's eligibility for, or increased the39 amount of, such pension, retirement or retired pay, annuity or other similar40 periodic payment, no reduction in the weekly benefit amount payable to41 the individual for such week shall be made under this subsection. No42 reduction shall be made for payments made under the social security act or43 railroad retirement act of 1974.HB 2678 1031 (o) For any week of unemployment on the basis of services2 performed in any capacity and under any of the circumstances described in3 subsection (i), (j) or (k) that an individual performed in an educational4 institution while in the employ of an educational service agency. For the5 purposes of this subsection, the term "educational service agency" means a6 governmental agency or entity that is established and operated exclusively7 for the purpose of providing such services to one or more educational8 institutions.9 (p) For any week of unemployment on the basis of service as a school10 bus or other motor vehicle driver employed by a private contractor to11 transport pupils, students and school personnel to or from school-related12 functions or activities for an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A.13 44-703(v), and amendments thereto, if such week begins during the period14 between two successive academic years or during a similar period between15 two regular terms, whether or not successive, if the individual has a16 contract or contracts, or a reasonable assurance thereof, to perform17 services in any such capacity with a private contractor for any educational18 institution for both such academic years or both such terms. An individual19 shall not be disqualified for benefits as provided in this subsection for any20 week of unemployment:21 (1) That the individual is a participating employee in a short-term22 compensation program established pursuant to K.S.A. 44-757, and23 amendments thereto; or24 (2) on the basis of service as a bus or other motor vehicle driver25 employed by a private contractor to transport persons to or from26 nonschool-related functions or activities.27 (q) For any week of unemployment on the basis of services28 performed by the individual in any capacity and under any of the29 circumstances described in subsection (i), (j), (k) or (o) that are provided30 to or on behalf of an educational institution, as defined in K.S.A. 44-31 703(v), and amendments thereto, while the individual is in the employ of32 an employer that is a governmental entity, Indian tribe or any employer33 described in section 501(c)(3) of the federal internal revenue code of 198634 that is exempt from income under section 501(a) of the code.35 (r) For any week in which an individual is registered at and attending36 an established school, training facility or other educational institution, or is37 on vacation during or between two successive academic years or terms. An38 individual shall not be disqualified for benefits as provided in this39 subsection if:40 (1) The individual was engaged in full-time employment concurrent41 with the individual's school attendance;42 (2) the individual is attending approved training as defined in K.S.A.43 44-703(s), and amendments thereto; orHB 2678 1041 (3) the individual is attending evening, weekend or limited day time2 classes that would not affect availability for work, and is otherwise eligible3 under K.S.A. 44-705(c), and amendments thereto.4 (s) For any week in which an individual is receiving or has received5 remuneration in the form of a back pay award or settlement. The6 remuneration shall be allocated to the week or weeks in the manner as7 specified in the award or agreement, or in the absence of such specificity8 in the award or agreement, such remuneration shall be allocated to the9 week or weeks for which such remuneration, in the judgment of the10 secretary, would have been paid.11 (1) For any such weeks that an individual receives remuneration in12 the form of a back pay award or settlement, an overpayment will be13 established in the amount of unemployment benefits paid and shall be14 collected from the claimant.15 (2) If an employer chooses to withhold from a back pay award or16 settlement, amounts paid to a claimant while they claimed unemployment17 benefits, such employer shall pay the department the amount withheld.18 With respect to such amount, the secretary shall have available all of the19 collection remedies authorized or provided in K.S.A. 44-717, and20 amendments thereto.21 (t) (1) Any applicant for or recipient of unemployment benefits who22 tests positive for unlawful use of a controlled substance or controlled23 substance analog shall be required to complete a substance abuse treatment24 program approved by the secretary of labor, secretary of commerce or25 secretary for children and families, and a job skills program approved by26 the secretary of labor, secretary of commerce or the secretary for children27 and families. Subject to applicable federal laws, any applicant for or28 recipient of unemployment benefits who fails to complete or refuses to29 participate in the substance abuse treatment program or job skills program30 as required under this subsection shall be ineligible to receive31 unemployment benefits until completion of such substance abuse32 treatment and job skills programs. Upon completion of both substance33 abuse treatment and job skills programs, such applicant for or recipient of34 unemployment benefits may be subject to periodic drug screening, as35 determined by the secretary of labor. Upon a second positive test for36 unlawful use of a controlled substance or controlled substance analog, an37 applicant for or recipient of unemployment benefits shall be ordered to38 complete again a substance abuse treatment program and job skills39 program, and shall be terminated from unemployment benefits for a period40 of 12 months, or until such applicant for or recipient of unemployment41 benefits completes both substance abuse treatment and job skills programs,42 whichever is later. Upon a third positive test for unlawful use of a43 controlled substance or controlled substance analog, an applicant for or aHB 2678 1051 recipient of unemployment benefits shall be terminated from receiving2 unemployment benefits, subject to applicable federal law.3 (2) Any individual who has been discharged or refused employment4 for failing a preemployment drug screen required by an employer may5 request that the drug screening specimen be sent to a different drug testing6 facility for an additional drug screening. Any such individual who requests7 an additional drug screening at a different drug testing facility shall be8 required to pay the cost of drug screening.9 (3) The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to any individual10 who is a patient and has been issued a valid identification card pursuant11 to section 10, and amendments thereto.12 (u) If the individual was found not to have a disqualifying13 adjudication or conviction under K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and14 amendments thereto, was hired and then was subsequently convicted of a15 disqualifying felony under K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and amendments16 thereto, and discharged pursuant to K.S.A. 39-970 or 65-5117, and17 amendments thereto. The disqualification shall begin the day following the18 separation and shall continue until after the individual becomes19 reemployed and has had earnings from insured work of at least three times20 the individual's determined weekly benefit amount.21 (v) Notwithstanding the provisions of any subsection, an individual22 shall not be disqualified for such week of part-time employment in a23 substitute capacity for an educational institution if such individual's most24 recent employment prior to the individual's benefit year begin date was for25 a non-educational institution and such individual demonstrates application26 for work in such individual's customary occupation or for work for which27 the individual is reasonably fit by training or experience.28 Sec. 68. K.S.A. 44-1009 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-29 1009. (a) It shall be an unlawful employment practice:30 (1) For an employer, because of the race, religion, color, sex,31 disability, national origin or ancestry of any person to refuse to hire or32 employ such person to bar or discharge such person from employment or33 to otherwise discriminate against such person in compensation or in terms,34 conditions or privileges of employment; to limit, segregate, separate,35 classify or make any distinction in regards to employees; or to follow any36 employment procedure or practice which, in fact, results in discrimination,37 segregation or separation without a valid business necessity.38 (2) For a labor organization, because of the race, religion, color, sex,39 disability, national origin or ancestry of any person, to exclude or to expel40 from its membership such person or to discriminate in any way against any41 of its members or against any employer or any person employed by an42 employer.43 (3) For any employer, employment agency or labor organization toHB 2678 1061 print or circulate or cause to be printed or circulated any statement,2 advertisement or publication, or to use any form of application for3 employment or membership or to make any inquiry in connection with4 prospective employment or membership, which expresses, directly or5 indirectly, any limitation, specification or discrimination as to race,6 religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry, or any intent to7 make any such limitation, specification or discrimination, unless based on8 a bona fide occupational qualification.9 (4) For any employer, employment agency or labor organization to10 discharge, expel or otherwise discriminate against any person because such11 person has opposed any practices or acts forbidden under this act or12 because such person has filed a complaint, testified or assisted in any13 proceeding under this act.14 (5) For an employment agency to refuse to list and properly classify15 for employment or to refuse to refer any person for employment or16 otherwise discriminate against any person because of such person's race,17 religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry; or to comply18 with a request from an employer for a referral of applicants for19 employment if the request expresses, either directly or indirectly, any20 limitation, specification or discrimination as to race, religion, color, sex,21 disability, national origin or ancestry.22 (6) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency, or23 school which provides, coordinates or controls apprenticeship, on-the-job,24 or other training or retraining program, to maintain a practice of25 discrimination, segregation or separation because of race, religion, color,26 sex, disability, national origin or ancestry, in admission, hiring,27 assignments, upgrading, transfers, promotion, layoff, dismissal,28 apprenticeship or other training or retraining program, or in any other29 terms, conditions or privileges of employment, membership,30 apprenticeship or training; or to follow any policy or procedure which, in31 fact, results in such practices without a valid business motive.32 (7) For any person, whether an employer or an employee or not, to33 aid, abet, incite, compel or coerce the doing of any of the acts forbidden34 under this act, or attempt to do so.35 (8) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency or joint36 labor-management committee to: (A) Limit, segregate or classify a job37 applicant or employee in a way that adversely affects the opportunities or38 status of such applicant or employee because of the disability of such39 applicant or employee; (B) participate in a contractual or other40 arrangement or relationship, including a relationship with an employment41 or referral agency, labor union, an organization providing fringe benefits to42 an employee or an organization providing training and apprenticeship43 programs that has the effect of subjecting a qualified applicant orHB 2678 1071 employee with a disability to the discrimination prohibited by this act; (C)2 utilize standards criteria, or methods of administration that have the effect3 of discrimination on the basis of disability or that perpetuate the4 discrimination of others who are subject to common administrative5 control; (D) exclude or otherwise deny equal jobs or benefits to a qualified6 individual because of the known disability of an individual with whom the7 qualified individual is known to have a relationship or association; (E) not8 make reasonable accommodations to the known physical or mental9 limitations of an otherwise qualified individual with a disability who is an10 applicant or employee, unless such employer, labor organization,11 employment agency or joint labor-management committee can12 demonstrate that the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on13 the operation of the business thereof; (F) deny employment opportunities14 to a job applicant or employee who is an otherwise qualified individual15 with a disability, if such denial is based on the need to make reasonable16 accommodation to the physical or mental impairments of the employee or17 applicant; (G) use qualification standards, employment tests or other18 selection criteria that screen out or tend to screen out an individual with a19 disability or a class of individuals with disabilities unless the standard, test20 or other selection criteria, as used, is shown to be job-related for the21 position in question and is consistent with business necessity; or (H) fail to22 select and administer tests concerning employment in the most effective23 manner to ensure that, when such test is administered to a job applicant or24 employee who has a disability that impairs sensory, manual or speaking25 skills, the test results accurately reflect the skills, aptitude or whatever26 other factor of such applicant or employee that such test purports to27 measure, rather than reflecting the impaired sensory, manual or speaking28 skills of such employee or applicant (, except where such skills are the29 factors that the test purports to measure).30 (9) For any employer to:31 (A) Seek to obtain, to obtain or to use genetic screening or testing32 information of an employee or a prospective employee to distinguish33 between or discriminate against or restrict any right or benefit otherwise34 due or available to an employee or a prospective employee; or35 (B) subject, directly or indirectly, any employee or prospective36 employee to any genetic screening or test.37 (10) (A) For an employer, because a person is a patient or caregiver38 who has been issued a valid identification card pursuant to section 9, and39 amendments thereto, or possesses or uses medical cannabis in accordance40 with the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and amendments41 thereto, to:42 (i) Refuse to hire or employ a person;43 (ii) bar or discharge such person from employment; orHB 2678 1081 (iii) otherwise discriminate against such person in compensation or2 in terms, conditions or privileges of employment without a valid business3 necessity.4 (B) For a labor organization, because a person is a patient or5 caregiver who has been issued a valid identification card pursuant to6 section 9, and amendments thereto, or possesses or uses medical cannabis7 in accordance with the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 1 et seq., and8 amendments thereto, to exclude or expel such person from such labor9 organization's membership.10 (C) Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prohibit a person11 from taking any action necessary to procure or retain any monetary12 benefit provided under federal law, or any rules and regulations adopted13 thereunder, or to obtain or maintain any license, certificate, registration14 or other legal status issued or bestowed under federal law, or any rules15 and regulations adopted thereunder.16 (b) It shall not be an unlawful employment practice to fill vacancies17 in such way as to eliminate or reduce imbalance with respect to race,18 religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry.19 (c) It shall be an unlawful discriminatory practice:20 (1) For any person, as defined herein being the owner, operator,21 lessee, manager, agent or employee of any place of public accommodation22 to refuse, deny or make a distinction, directly or indirectly, in offering its23 goods, services, facilities, and accommodations to any person as covered24 by this act because of race, religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or25 ancestry, except where a distinction because of sex is necessary because of26 the intrinsic nature of such accommodation.27 (2) For any person, whether or not specifically enjoined from28 discriminating under any provisions of this act, to aid, abet, incite, compel29 or coerce the doing of any of the acts forbidden under this act, or to30 attempt to do so.31 (3) For any person, to refuse, deny, make a distinction, directly or32 indirectly, or discriminate in any way against persons because of the race,33 religion, color, sex, disability, national origin or ancestry of such persons34 in the full and equal use and enjoyment of the services, facilities,35 privileges and advantages of any institution, department or agency of the36 state of Kansas or any political subdivision or municipality thereof.37 Sec. 69. K.S.A. 44-1015 is hereby amended to read as follows: 44-38 1015. As used in this act, unless the context otherwise requires:39 (a) "Commission" means the Kansas human rights commission.40 (b) "Real property" means and includes:41 (1) All vacant or unimproved land; and42 (2) any building or structure which is occupied or designed or43 intended for occupancy, or any building or structure having a portionHB 2678 1091 thereof which is occupied or designed or intended for occupancy.2 (c) "Family" includes a single individual.3 (d) "Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership,4 association, labor organization, legal representative, mutual company,5 joint-stock company, trust, unincorporated organization, trustee, trustee in6 bankruptcy, receiver and fiduciary.7 (e) "To rent" means to lease, to sublease, to let and otherwise to grant8 for a consideration the right to occupy premises not owned by the9 occupant.10 (f) "Discriminatory housing practice" means any act that is unlawful11 under K.S.A. 44-1016, 44-1017 or 44-1026, and amendments thereto, or12 section 45, and amendments thereto.13 (g) "Person aggrieved" means any person who claims to have been14 injured by a discriminatory housing practice or believes that such person15 will be injured by a discriminatory housing practice that is about to occur.16 (h) "Disability" has the meaning provided by means the same as17 defined in K.S.A. 44-1002 and amendments thereto.18 (i) "Familial status" means having one or more individuals less than19 18 years of age domiciled with:20 (1) A parent or another person having legal custody of such21 individual or individuals; or22 (2) the designee of such parent or other person having such custody,23 with the written permission of such parent or other person.24 Sec. 70. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-1120 is hereby amended to read as25 follows: 65-1120. (a) Grounds for disciplinary actions. The board may26 deny, revoke, limit or suspend any license or authorization to practice27 nursing as a registered professional nurse, as a licensed practical nurse, as28 an advanced practice registered nurse or as a registered nurse anesthetist29 that is issued by the board or applied for under this act, or may require the30 licensee to attend a specific number of hours of continuing education in31 addition to any hours the licensee may already be required to attend or32 may publicly or privately censure a licensee or holder of a temporary33 permit or authorization, if the applicant, licensee or holder of a temporary34 permit or authorization is found after hearing:35 (1) To be guilty of fraud or deceit in practicing nursing or in36 procuring or attempting to procure a license to practice nursing;37 (2) to have been guilty of a felony or to have been guilty of a38 misdemeanor involving an illegal drug offense unless the applicant or39 licensee establishes sufficient rehabilitation to warrant the public trust,40 except that notwithstanding K.S.A. 74-120, and amendments thereto, no41 license or authorization to practice nursing as a licensed professional42 nurse, as a licensed practical nurse, as an advanced practice registered43 nurse or registered nurse anesthetist shall be granted to a person with aHB 2678 1101 felony conviction for a crime against persons as specified in article 34 of2 chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, prior to their repeal, or article3 54 of chapter 21 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, or K.S.A. 21-6104, 21-4 6325, 21-6326 or 21-6418, and amendments thereto;5 (3) has been convicted or found guilty or has entered into an agreed6 disposition of a misdemeanor offense related to the practice of nursing as7 determined on a case-by-case basis;8 (4) to have committed an act of professional incompetency as defined9 in subsection (e);10 (5) to be unable to practice with skill and safety due to current abuse11 of drugs or alcohol;12 (6) to be a person who has been adjudged in need of a guardian or13 conservator, or both, under the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator,14 or both, and who has not been restored to capacity under that act;15 (7) to be guilty of unprofessional conduct as defined by rules and16 regulations of the board;17 (8) to have willfully or repeatedly violated the provisions of the18 Kansas nurse practice act or any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to19 that act, including K.S.A. 65-1114 and 65-1122, and amendments thereto;20 (9) to have a license to practice nursing as a registered nurse or as a21 practical nurse denied, revoked, limited or suspended, or to be publicly or22 privately censured, by a licensing authority of another state, agency of the23 United States government, territory of the United States or country or to24 have other disciplinary action taken against the applicant or licensee by a25 licensing authority of another state, agency of the United States26 government, territory of the United States or country. A certified copy of27 the record or order of public or private censure, denial, suspension,28 limitation, revocation or other disciplinary action of the licensing authority29 of another state, agency of the United States government, territory of the30 United States or country shall constitute prima facie evidence of such a31 fact for purposes of this paragraph (9); or32 (10) to have assisted suicide in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to33 its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5407, and amendments thereto, as established by34 any of the following:35 (A) A copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty for a36 felony in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-37 5407, and amendments thereto.;38 (B) a copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for39 violating an injunction issued under K.S.A. 60-4404, and amendments40 thereto.; or41 (C) a copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under42 K.S.A. 60-4405, and amendments thereto.43 (b) Proceedings. Upon filing of a sworn complaint with the boardHB 2678 1111 charging a person with having been guilty of any of the unlawful practices2 specified in subsection (a), two or more members of the board shall3 investigate the charges, or the board may designate and authorize an4 employee or employees of the board to conduct an investigation. After5 investigation, the board may institute charges. If an investigation, in the6 opinion of the board, reveals reasonable grounds for believing the7 applicant or licensee is guilty of the charges, the board shall fix a time and8 place for proceedings, which shall be conducted in accordance with the9 provisions of the Kansas administrative procedure act.10 (c) Witnesses. No person shall be excused from testifying in any11 proceedings before the board under this act or in any civil proceedings12 under this act before a court of competent jurisdiction on the ground that13 such testimony may incriminate the person testifying, but such testimony14 shall not be used against the person for the prosecution of any crime under15 the laws of this state except the crime of perjury as defined in K.S.A. 21-16 5903, and amendments thereto.17 (d) Costs. If final agency action of the board in a proceeding under18 this section is adverse to the applicant or licensee, the costs of the board's19 proceedings shall be charged to the applicant or licensee as in ordinary20 civil actions in the district court, but if the board is the unsuccessful party,21 the costs shall be paid by the board. Witness fees and costs may be taxed22 by the board according to the statutes relating to procedure in the district23 court. All costs accrued by the board, when it is the successful party, and24 which that the attorney general certifies cannot be collected from the25 applicant or licensee shall be paid from the board of nursing fee fund. All26 moneys collected following board proceedings shall be credited in full to27 the board of nursing fee fund.28 (e) Professional incompetency defined. As used in this section,29 "professional incompetency" means:30 (1) One or more instances involving failure to adhere to the31 applicable standard of care to a degree which that constitutes gross32 negligence, as determined by the board;33 (2) repeated instances involving failure to adhere to the applicable34 standard of care to a degree which that constitutes ordinary negligence, as35 determined by the board; or36 (3) a pattern of practice or other behavior which that demonstrates a37 manifest incapacity or incompetence to practice nursing.38 (f) Criminal justice information. The board upon request shall receive39 from the Kansas bureau of investigation such criminal history record40 information relating to arrests and criminal convictions as necessary for41 the purpose of determining initial and continuing qualifications of42 licensees of and applicants for licensure by the board in accordance with43 K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 22-4715, and amendments thereto.HB 2678 1121 (g) Medical cannabis exemption. The board shall not deny, revoke,2 limit or suspend the license of any licensee or publicly or privately3 censure any licensee for:4 (1) Advising a patient about the possible benefits and risks of using5 medical cannabis or that using medical cannabis may mitigate the6 patient's symptoms; or7 (2) any actions as a patient or caregiver who has been issued a valid8 identification card pursuant to the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 19 et seq., and amendments thereto, including whether the licensee possesses10 or has possessed or uses or has used medical cannabis in accordance with11 such act.12 Sec. 71. K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 65-28b08 is hereby amended to read as13 follows: 65-28b08. (a) The board may deny, revoke, limit or suspend any14 license or authorization issued to a certified nurse-midwife to engage in15 the independent practice of midwifery that is issued by the board or16 applied for under this act, or may publicly censure a licensee or holder of a17 temporary permit or authorization, if the applicant or licensee is found18 after a hearing:19 (1) To be guilty of fraud or deceit while engaging in the independent20 practice of midwifery or in procuring or attempting to procure a license to21 engage in the independent practice of midwifery;22 (2) to have been found guilty of a felony or to have been found guilty23 of a misdemeanor involving an illegal drug offense unless the applicant or24 licensee establishes sufficient rehabilitation to warrant the public trust,25 except that notwithstanding K.S.A. 74-120, and amendments thereto, no26 license or authorization to practice and engage in the independent practice27 of midwifery shall be granted to a person with a felony conviction for a28 crime against persons as specified in article 34 of chapter 21 of the Kansas29 Statutes Annotated, prior to its repeal, or article 54 of chapter 21 of the30 Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, or K.S.A. 21-6104,31 21-6325, 21-6326 or 21-6418, and amendments thereto;32 (3) to have committed an act of professional incompetence as defined33 in subsection (c);34 (4) to be unable to practice the healing arts with reasonable skill and35 safety by reason of impairment due to physical or mental illness or36 condition or use of alcohol, drugs or controlled substances. All37 information, reports, findings and other records relating to impairment38 shall be confidential and not subject to discovery or release to any person39 or entity outside of a board proceeding;40 (5) to be a person who has been adjudged in need of a guardian or41 conservator, or both, under the act for obtaining a guardian or conservator,42 or both, and who has not been restored to capacity under that act;43 (6) to be guilty of unprofessional conduct as defined by rules andHB 2678 1131 regulations of the board;2 (7) to have willfully or repeatedly violated the provisions of the3 Kansas nurse practice act or any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to4 such act;5 (8) to have a license to practice nursing as a registered nurse or as a6 practical nurse denied, revoked, limited or suspended, or to have been7 publicly or privately censured, by a licensing authority of another state,8 agency of the United States government, territory of the United States or9 country or to have other disciplinary action taken against the applicant or10 licensee by a licensing authority of another state, agency of the United11 States government, territory of the United States or country. A certified12 copy of the record or order of public or private censure, denial, suspension,13 limitation, revocation or other disciplinary action of the licensing authority14 of another state, agency of the United States government, territory of the15 United States or country shall constitute prima facie evidence of such a16 fact for purposes of this paragraph; or17 (9) to have assisted suicide in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to its18 repeal, or K.S.A. 21-5407, and amendments thereto, as established by any19 of the following:20 (A) A copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty to a21 felony in violation of K.S.A. 21-3406, prior to its repeal, or K.S.A. 21-22 5407, and amendments thereto;23 (B) a copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for24 violating an injunction issued under K.S.A. 60-4404, and amendments25 thereto; or26 (C) a copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under27 K.S.A. 60-4405, and amendments thereto.28 (b) No person shall be excused from testifying in any proceedings29 before the board under this act or in any civil proceedings under this act30 before a court of competent jurisdiction on the ground that such testimony31 may incriminate the person testifying, but such testimony shall not be used32 against the person for the prosecution of any crime under the laws of this33 state, except the crime of perjury as defined in K.S.A. 21-5903, and34 amendments thereto.35 (c) The board shall not deny, revoke, limit or suspend the license or36 authorization issued to a certified nurse-midwife or publicly or privately37 censure a certified nurse-midwife for:38 (1) Advising a patient about the possible benefits and risks of using39 medical cannabis or that using medical cannabis may mitigate the40 patient's symptoms; or41 (2) any actions as a patient or caregiver who has been issued a valid42 identification card pursuant to the Kansas medical cannabis act, section 143 et seq., and amendments thereto, including whether the licensee possessesHB 2678 1141 or has possessed or uses or has used medical cannabis in accordance with2 such act.3 (d) As used in this section, "professional incompetency" means:4 (1) One or more instances involving failure to adhere to the5 applicable standard of care to a degree which that constitutes gross6 negligence, as determined by the board;7 (2) repeated instances involving failure to adhere to the applicable8 standard of care to a degree which that constitutes ordinary negligence, as9 determined by the board; or10 (3) a pattern of practice or other behavior which that demonstrates a11 manifest incapacity or incompetence to engage in the independent practice12 of midwifery.13 (d)(e) The board, upon request, shall receive from the Kansas bureau14 of investigation such criminal history record information relating to arrests15 and criminal convictions, as necessary, for the purpose of determining16 initial and continuing qualifications of licensees and applicants for17 licensure by the board.18 Sec. 72. K.S.A. 79-5201 is hereby amended to read as follows: 79-19 5201. As used in this act article 52 of chapter 79 of the Kansas Statutes20 Annotated, and amendments thereto:21 (a) "Marijuana" means any marijuana, whether real or counterfeit, as22 defined by K.S.A. 21-5701, and amendments thereto, which is held,23 possessed, transported, transferred, sold or offered to be sold in violation24 of the laws of Kansas;25 (b) "Controlled substance" means any drug or substance, whether real26 or counterfeit, as defined by K.S.A. 21-5701, and amendments thereto,27 which is held, possessed, transported, transferred, sold or offered to be28 sold in violation of the laws of Kansas. Such term shall not include29 marijuana;30 (c)(b) "dealer" means any person who, in violation of Kansas law,31 manufactures, produces, ships, transports or imports into Kansas or in any32 manner acquires or possesses more than 28 grams of marijuana, or more33 than one gram of any controlled substance, or 10 or more dosage units of34 any controlled substance which that is not sold by weight;35 (d)(c) "domestic marijuana plant" means any cannabis plant at any36 level of growth which that is harvested or tended, manicured, irrigated,37 fertilized or where there is other evidence that it has been treated in any38 other way in an effort to enhance growth;39 (d) "marijuana" means any marijuana, whether real or counterfeit,40 as defined in K.S.A. 21-5701, and amendments thereto, that is held,41 possessed, transported, transferred, sold or offered for sale in violation of42 the laws of Kansas; and43 (e) "medical cannabis" means the same as defined in section 2, andHB 2678 1151 amendments thereto.2 Sec. 73. K.S.A. 79-5210 is hereby amended to read as follows: 79-3 5210. Nothing in this act requires persons registered under article 16 of4 chapter 65 of the Kansas Statutes Annotated, and amendments thereto, or5 otherwise lawfully in possession of marijuana, medical cannabis or a6 controlled substance to pay the tax required under this act.7 Sec. 74. K.S.A. 21-5703, 21-5706, 21-5707, 21-5709, 21-5710, 21-8 6109, 23-3201, 38-2269, 44-1009, 44-1015, 79-5201 and 79-5210 and9 K.S.A. 2025 Supp. 8-1567, 21-5705, 21-6607, 22-3717, 22-4714, 44-501,10 44-706, 65-1120 and 65-28b08 are hereby repealed.11 Sec. 75. This act shall take effect and be in force from and after its12 publication in the statute book.
Enacting the Kansas medical cannabis act to authorize the cultivation, processing, distribution, sale and use of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products.
Sponsors
Rep. Ford Carr (D) sponsors HB 2678, and 27 members have co-sponsored it.

Rep. · D–84 · Sponsor

Rep. · D–57 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–45 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–44 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–86 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–35 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–66 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–92 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–32 · Co-sponsor

Rep. · D–17 · Co-sponsor
Committees
HB 2678 went before 2 committees: Federal and State Affairs and Interstate Cooperation.
History
HB 2678 has taken 3 actions since Feb 4, 2026, the latest on Mar 16, 2026.
| Chamber | Action | |||
|---|---|---|---|---|
Mar 16, 2026 | House | House Withdrawn from Committee on Federal and State Affairs; Referred to Committee on Interstate Cooperation | ||
Feb 4, 2026 | House | House Introduced | ||
Feb 4, 2026 | House | House Referred to Committee on Federal and State Affairs |
Votes
HB 2678 has not gone to a roll call.
Source: kslegislature.gov · legiscan.com